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(C) Copyright 2006-2009 CertBible Tech LTD,All Rights Reserved.
Important Note
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1. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
Select the best response.

A. Router RAR1 will accept only route 10.10.0.0/19 from its BGP neighbor.
B. Router RAR1 will send only route 10.10.0.0/19 to its BGP neighbor.
C. Only traffic with a destination from 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.
D. Only traffic going to 10.10.0.0/19 will be permitted.

Answer: A

2. If no metric is specified for the routes being redistributed into IS-IS, what metric value is assigned to the routes?
Select the best response.

A. 0
B. 1
C. 10
D. 20

Answer: A

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements accurately describe the result of applying the exhibited route map? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.
B. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes.
C. The map redistributes into EIGRP all routes that match the pfx prefix list and the five metric values40000, 1000, 255, 1, and 1500.
D. The map prohibits the redistribution of all external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.
E. All routes that do no match clauses 10 and 20 of the route map are redistributed with their tags set to 8.
F. The map permits the redistribution of all type 1 external OSPF routes.

Answer: AEF

4. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default route to its neighbors?

Select the best response.

A. R4(config)# ip default-network 10.0.0.0
B. R4(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
C. R4(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 10.1.1.1
D. R4(config-router)# default-information originate

Answer: A

5. Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP)
B. area 0
C. totally stubby
D. NSSA
E. stub
F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP)

Answer: CE

6. Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. No virtual links are allowed.
B. The area cannot be a backbone area.
C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet.
D. The area has no more than 10 routers.
E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed.
F. Interarea routes are suppressed.

Answer: ABE

7. What are the two reasons for the appearance of 0.0.0.0 as the next hop for a network in the show ip bgp command output? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. The network was originated via redistribution of an interior gateway protocol into BGP.
B. The network was defined by a static route.
C. The network was originated via a network or aggregate command.
D. The network was learned via EBGP.
E. The network was learned via IBGP.

Answer: AC

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.)

Select 2 response(s).

A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100.
B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration.
C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration.
D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates.
E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor.

Answer: AB

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table.
B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.
C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table.
D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP.
E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command.

Answer: CD

10. Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. Multicast addresses 224.0.1.0 through 238.255.255.255 are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet.
B. The multicast address 224.0.0.1 is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA.
C. Multicast addresses 239.0.0.0 through 239.255.255.255 are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization.
D. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.5 and 224.0.0.6 are limited scoped addresses that have been reserved for OSPF.
E. Multicast addresses 224.0.0.0 through 224.0.0.255 are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router.

Answer: ACE

11. What are two rules for compacting IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. The maximum number of times a double colon can replace a 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes is two.
B. The leading zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
C. Every 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a single colon.
D. The trailing zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.
E. Any single, continuous string of one or more 16-bit segments that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a double colon.
F. Two zeroes in the middle of any 16-bit segment do not have to be written.

Answer: BE

12. What is the difference between the IPv6 addresses ::/0 and ::/128?
Select the best response.

A. ::/0 is the unspecified address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
B. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the anycast address.
C. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
D. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address.
E. ::/0 is the default route, and ::/128 is the unspecified address.
F. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the default address.

Answer: E

13. Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it.
B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address.
C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.
E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data.
F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.

Answer: ADE

14. Refer to the output. What IOS command produces this output?
Select the best response.

A. show ip ospf
B. show ip ospf interface
C. show ipv6 ospf interface
D. show ipv6 ospf

Answer: D

15. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is being used as a relay device for autoconfiguration of switch S1. Which configuration will accomplish this?
Select the best response.

A. S1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
S1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.0.0.2

B. S1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
S1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1

C. R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.2
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.3
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.4
R1(config-if)# exit
R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.0.0.1

D. R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
R2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
R3(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R3(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
R4(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R4(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1

E. S1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
S1(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.0.0.2
R2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1

R3(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R3(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1
R4(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R4(config-if)# ip helper-address 20.0.0.1

Answer: C

16. Refer to the exhibit. Router RTA is the hub router for routers RTB and RTC. The Frame Relay network is configured with EIGRP, and the entire network is in autonomous system 1. However, router RTB and RTC are not receiving each other’s routes. What is the solution?
Select the best response.

A. Configure the auto summary command under router eigrp 1 on router RTA.
B. Issue the no ip split horizon command on router RTA.
C. Configure subinterfaces on the spoke routers and assign different IP address subnets for each subinterface.
D. Check and change the access lists on router RTA.
E. Issue the no ip split horizon eigrp 1 command on router RTA.
F. Configure a distribute list on router RTA that allows it to advertise all routes to the spoke routers.

Answer: E

17. Refer to the exhibit. This network is running IS-IS. Router RTC is inside Cloud#1. From the output on RTD, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. The SNPA for RTE is the source data link address that is used to transmit frames to RTD.
B. IP routing updates between RTC and RTD will be IP datagrams that are encapsulated by HDLC.
C. IP routing updates between RTC and RTD will be IP datagrams that are encapsulated by CLNS.
D. IP routing updates between RTC and RTD will be CLNS datagrams that are encapsulated by HDLC.
E. Because it is running IS-IS in IP-only mode, RTD will not transmit CLNS packets.
F. The NET for RTE will be 49.0150.0019.06b7.fd5f.00.

Answer: AD

18. A router has two paths to reach another network in a different autonomous system. Neither route was generated by the local router and both routes have the same default weight and local preference values. Which statement is true about how BGP would select the best path?
Select the best response.

A. If the command bgp always-compare-med has been given, then the router will prefer the route with the highest MED.
B. The router will prefer the route with the lower MED.
C. The router will prefer the shortest autonomous system path.
D. To influence one route to be preferred, its default local preference value will be changed via the use of the command bgp default local-preference 50.

Answer: C

19. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 response(s).

A. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the ISP router.
B. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the SanJose1 router.
C. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 50 command.
D. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 75 command.
E. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to SanJose1 because of the lower MED value of SanJose1.
F. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to SanJose2 because of the higher MED value of SanJose2.

Answer: AE

20. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true about the IS-IS configuration? (Choose two.)

Select 2 response(s).

A. The router is in area 49.0001.0002.
B. The router has a system ID of 0003.0004.
C. The router acts as a Level 1-2 router.
D. The network service access point selector (NSEL) byte has a value of 0.
E. CLNS routing is enabled for the router.

Answer: CD

21. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, what two conclusions can be reached? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. Three physical interfaces are taking part in integrated IS-IS.
B. Address summarization is configured.
C. There are two neighboring routers sending IS-IS routing information.
D. The default administrative distance has been changed.
E. IS-IS is not redistributing any other routing protocols.
F. IS-IS is not enabled.

Answer: CE

22. Which three options are supported as address allocation mechanisms for DHCP on Cisco routers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. The IP address can be automatically assigned to a host.
B. The IP address can be assigned as a random hash value of the burned-in-address of the lowest-numbered LAN interface on the router.
C. The network administrator can assign a specific IP address to a specific host MAC address.
D. The IP address can be assigned from configured pools in a reverse lexicographical order.
E. The IP address can be assigned to a host for a limited time or until the host explicitly releases the address.
F. The IP address can be assigned to a host until the host usurps the assigned value using its own dynamic override mechanism.

Answer: ACE

23. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, how would the BGP updates that come from router R1 be replicated inside autonomous system 65200?

Select the best response.

A. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent to routers R3 and R4. Routers R3 and R4 will then forward those BGP updates to router R5.
B. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will not be sent to routers R3 and R4.
C. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent directly to router R5.
D. None of the BGP updates that are received on router R2 will ever be received by router R5.

Answer: D

24. How is authentication handled with OSPFv3?
Select the best response.

A. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by SHA-1 authentication.
B. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by MD5 authentication.
C. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv6 IPsec.
D. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv4 IPsec.

Answer: C

25. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the configuration?

Select the best response.

A. Hosts will receive IP settings from pool 1 until the addresses run out, and then hosts will receive the settings from pool 2.
B. Hosts belonging to DHCP pool 1 and pool 2 will retain their IP settings for 30 hours before they must renew.
C. Hosts in the 10.10.20.0/24 subnet will use 10.10.20.50 as its DNS server.
D. DHCP pool 0 needs to have the ip dhcp excluded-address command to exclude the default router and DNS servers.

Answer: C

26. Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 chooses one path to network 198.133.219.0/24. Indicate the reason Router RT-1 chooses this “best” path.

Select the best response.

A. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the origin code.
B. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 gives precedence to the BGP MED values.
C. IP address 128.107.2.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.
D. In making its decision about the best path, RT-1 prefers the IGP metrics.
E. RT-1 prefers internal BGP routes.
F. IP address 128.107.254.2 is lower than 128.107.255.2.

Answer: A

27. Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 and router RT-2 both advertise network 131.25.0.0/16 to router RT-3 via internal BGP. What is the reason that router RT-3 chose router RT-1 as its best path to network 131.25.0.0/16.
Select the best response.

A. It advertises the best AS-path.
B. It advertises the best origin code.
C. It advertises the best MED.
D. It advertises the best local preference.
E. It has a better router ID.
F. It advertises a lower autonomous system.

Answer: E

28. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the router configuration that is shown?
Select the best response.

A. Additional DHCP options will be imported from another DHCP server.
B. The DHCP server pools need to be bound to an interface to operate.
C. This configuration will provide IP configuration information to two different subnets.
D. Additional DCHP option information needs to be imported from another DHCP server.
E. If the router hands out all the addresses in pool 1, then it will supply addresses from pool 2.

Answer: C

29. Using the rules for IPv6 addressing, how can the address 2031:0000:240F:0000:0000:09C0:123A:121B be rewritten?
Select the best response.

A. 2031:0:240F::09C0:123A:121B
B. 2031::240F::09C0:123A:121B
C. 2031::240F:9C0::123A:121B
D. 2031::240F:::09C0:123A:121B

Answer: A

30. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration would correctly enable Host A to acquire an IP address from the DHCP server that is located at 10.1.2.10/24?
Select the best response.

A. ASw1(config)# interface range FastEthernet 0/1 – 24
ASw1(config-if-range)# ip forward-protocol udp 67
ASw1(config-if-range)# ip forward-protocol udp 68

B. ASw1(config)# interface range FastEthernet 0/1 – 24
ASw1(config-if-range)# ip helper-address 10.1.2.10

C. RTA(config)# interface fastethernet0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 67
RTA(config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 68

D. RTA(config)# interface fastethernet0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 67
RTA(config-if)# ip forward-protocol udp 68
E. RTA(config)# interface fastethernet0/0
RTA(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.2.10
F. RTA(config)# interface fastethernet0/1
RTA(config-if)# ip helper-address 10.1.2.10

Answer: E

Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks

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(C) Copyright 2006-2009 CertBible Tech LTD,All Rights Reserved.
Important Note
Please Read Carefully

Study Tips

This product will provide you questions and answers carefully compiled and written by our experts. Try to understand the concepts behind the questions instead of cramming the questions.

Go through the entire document at least twice so that you make sure that you are not
missing anything.

Latest Version

We are constantly reviewing our products. New material is added and old material is
revised. Free updates are available for 120 days after the purchase. You should check your
member zone at PassGuide an update 3-4 days before the scheduled exam date.

Feedback

If you spot a possible improvement then please let us know. We always interested in
improving product quality.
Feedback should be send to feedback@passguide.com. You should include the following:
Exam number, version, page number, question number, and your login ID.
Our experts will answer your mail promptly.

Be Prepared. Be Confident. Get Certified.
————————————————————————————————————————-
Sales and Support Manager
Sales Team: sales@passguide.com Support Team: support@passguide.com
———————————————————————————————————————

Copyright

Each pdf file contains a unique serial number associated with your particular name and
contact information for security purposes. So if we find out that a particular pdf file is
being distributed by you, CertBible reserves the right to take legal action against you
according to the International Copyright Laws.

1. Which two QoS statements are true about the use of the SDM QoS wizard? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Business-critical traffic includes VoIP and voice signaling packets.
B. SDM can be used to configure a basic QoS policy for incoming traffic on WAN interfaces and IPsec tunnels.
C. SDM can provide QoS for real-time traffic and business-critical traffic.
D. SDM creates a custom-queuing (CQ) or a priority-queuing (PQ) policy.
E. SDM creates a low latency queuing (LLQ) service policy with its associated classes.
F. When allocating bandwidth, values can be entered in either bandwidth percentage or kilobytes per second (kBps).

Answer: CE

2. Which two Cisco AutoQoS interface statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. AutoQoS is supported on Frame Relay multipoint subinterfaces.
B. AutoQoS is supported on low-speed ATM PVCs in point-to-point subinterfaces.
C. AutoQoS is supported on serial PPP and HDLC interfaces.
D. AutoQoS is supported only on Frame Relay main interfaces and not on any subinterface configuration.

Answer: BC

3. Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.

Answer: BD

4. Which two statements regarding the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. To support fault and policy reporting, the WLSE requires a Wireless Control System (WCS).
B. When WLSE detects an AP failure, it automatically increases the power and cell coverage of nearby APs.
C. WLSE requires the 2700 location appliance to offer location tracking.
D. WLSE can locate rogue APs and automatically shut them down.
E. WLSE configuration is done using the command line interface (CLI) or a WEB based template.

Answer: BD

5. Which two statements are true about the function of CAC? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. CAC provides guaranteed voice quality on a link.
B. CAC artificially limits the number of concurrent voice calls.
C. CAC is used to control the amount of bandwidth that is taken by a call on a link.
D. CAC prevents oversubscription of WAN resources that is caused by too much voice traffic.
E. CAC allows an unlimited number of voice calls while severely restricting, if necessary, other forms of traffic.
F. CAC solves voice congestion problems by using QoS to give priority to UDP traffic.

Answer: BD

6. Which two statements are true about the implementation of QoS? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Implementing DiffServ involves the configuration of RSVP.
B. Implementing IntServ allows QoS to be performed by configuring only the ingress and egress devices.
C. Implementing IntServ involves the utilization of RSVP.
D. Traffic should be classified and marked by the core network devices.
E. Traffic should be classified and marked as close to the edge of the network as possible.

Answer: CE

7. Which three configuration tasks are required to successfully deploy NBAR to recognize TCP and UDP stateful protocols? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Over leased lines, use the multilink ppp command to reduce latency and jitter, and to create Distributed Link Fragmentation and interleaving.
B. Use the service-policy command to attach a traffic flow to an interface on the router.
C. Use the ip rsvp bandwidth command to set a strict upper limit on the bandwidth NBAR uses, and to guarantee admission of any flows.
D. Use the policy-map command to define one or more QoS policies (such as shaping, policing, and so on) to apply to traffic defined by a class map.
E. Use the random-detect dscp command to modify the default minimum and maximum thresholds for the DSCP value.
F. Use the class-map command to define one or more traffic classes by specifying the criteria by which traffic is classified.

Answer: BDF

8. Which codec standard would provide the highest voice-quality, mean opinion score (MOS)?
Select the best response.
A. G.711, PCM
B. G.728, LDCELP
C. G.729, CS-ACELP
D. G.729A, CS-ACELP

Answer: A

9. Voice activity detection (VAD) suppresses the transmission of silence patterns. On average, and assuming that a link carries at least 24 calls, what percentage of total bandwidth could VAD save?
Select the best response.
A. 5
B. 15
C. 25
D. 35
E. 45
F. 55

Answer: D

10. What are the steps for configuring stateful NBAR for dynamic protocols?
Select the best response.
A. Use the command ip nbar protocol-discovery to allow identification of stateful protocols. Use the command ip nbar port-map to attach the protocols to an interface.
B. Use the command match protocol rtp to allow identification of real-time audio and video traffic. Use the command ip nbar port-map to extend the NBAR functionality for well-known protocols to new port numbers.
C. Use the command match protocol to allow identification of stateful protocols. Use the command ip nbar port-map to attach the protocols to an interface.
D. Configure a traffic class. Configure a traffic policy. Attach the traffic policy to an interface.
E. Configure video streaming. Configure audio streaming. Attach the codec to an interface.

Answer: D

11. Two sites are using a multisite centralized call processing model. The voice gateway on the remote branch has lost IP connectivity to its Cisco CallManager server. Which feature enables the remote gateway to take the role of the call agent during the WAN failure?
Select the best response.
A. automated alternate routing (AAR)
B. Cisco CallManager Attendant Console
C. real-time protocol (RTP)
D. Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST)

Answer: D

12. Refer to the exhibit. Both routers have been configured as VoIP gateways. They must also support traditional telephony devices to connect to analog telephones. Which two configuration changes would correctly support the voice requirements? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. On each router, under the dial-peer voice 1 pots configuration, add the port fa0/0 command.
B. On each router, under the dial-peer voice 1 pots configuration, add the port 1/0/0 command.
C. On each router, configure dial-peer voice 1 as a voip connection and configure dial-peer voice 2 as a pots connection.
D. Under the dial-peer voice 1 pots configuration, change the destination pattern of 1111 to 2222 on the R1 router, and 2222 to 1111 on the R2 router.
E. Under the dial-peer voice 2 voip configuration, change the destination pattern of 1111 to 2222 on the R1 router, and 2222 to 1111 on the R2 router.
F. Under the dial-peer voice 2 voip configuration, change the destination target address of 10.2.2.2 to 10.1.1.1 on the R1 router, and the destination target address of 10.1.1.1 to 10.2.2.2 on the R2 router.

Answer: BE

13. To have the best possible voice quality and to utilize effectively the available bandwidth, which queuing and compression mechanisms need to be used? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ)
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. priority queuing (PQ) or custom queuing (CQ)
D. Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
E. TCP header compression
F. UDP header compression

Answer: BD

14. Which three statements about end-to-end delay are true? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. End-to-end delay is the sum of propagation delays, processing delays, serialization delays, and queuing delays.
B. Coast-to-coast end-to-end delay over an optical link is about 20 ms.
C. Processing delay depends on various factors, which include CPU speed, CPU utilization, IP switching mode, and router architecture.
D. Propagation and serialization delays are related to the media.
E. Propagation delay is the time it takes to transmit a packet and is measured in bits-per-second (bps).
F. Serialization delay is the time it takes for a router to take the packet from an input interface and put it into the output queue of the output interface.

Answer: ACD

15. What three statements are true about the various deployments of the 802.1x Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. EAP-FAST has the ability to tie login with non-Microsoft user databases.
B. EAP-TLS supports static passwords.
C. PEAP supports one-time passwords.
D. LEAP does not support multiple operating systems.
E. LEAP supports Layer 3 roaming.
F. PEAP does not work with WPA.

Answer: ACE

16. Refer to the exhibit. What variation of the 802.1x Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) uses this authentication process?
Select the best response.
A. LEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. PEAP
D. EAP-TLS

Answer: A

17. What are three security problems with Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. WPA is based on the outdated IEEE 802.11i standard.
B. WPA uses RSN, which uses the same base encryption algorithm as RC4.
C. WPA requires a hardware upgrade that may not be supported by all vendors.
D. WPA uses TKIP, which uses the same base encryption algorithm as WEP.
E. WPA is susceptible to a DoS attack when it receives two packets in quick succession with bad MICs, forcing the AP to shut down the entire Basic Service Set (BSS) for one minute.
F. WPA is susceptible to a security weakness when preshared keys are used.

Answer: DEF

18. Which two steps are executed in the deployment of Cisco AutoQoS for Enterprise? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The customer uses SNMP statistics to create the policy.
B. QoS policy templates are generated and installed on the interface.
C. RTP is used to generate the policy.
D. LLQ, cRTP, and LFI are used to automatically discover the policy.
E. The auto-generated policy is manually optimized before implementation.
F. Auto-discovery is used to determine what traffic is on the interface.

Answer: BF

19. Which three methods would help prevent critical network-traffic packet loss on high speed serial interfaces? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. policy routing
B. increase link capacity
C. WRED
D. CBWFQ
E. LFI
F. WFQ

Answer: BCD

20. Interface congestion is causing drops in voice packets and TCP packets. The drops result in jerky speech quality and slower FTP traffic flows. Which two technologies would proactively address the TCP transfer rate and the voice problems? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. CBWFQ
B. LLQ
C. traffic shaping
D. WRED

Answer: BD

21. What form of AutoQoS is supported on Cisco Catalyst 2950 switches with the Enhanced Image?
Select the best response.
A. AutoQos Enterprise
B. AutoQoS Campus
C. AutoQoS VoIP
D. AutoQoS LAN

Answer: C

22. Which two statements about the DiffServ QoS model are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. DiffServ requires RSVP to set up a path through the network to accommodate the requested QoS.
B. Network traffic is identified by class, and the level of service is chosen for each class.
C. The DiffServ model relies on a fairly simple mechanism to provide QoS over a wide range of equipment.
D. RSVP enables the DiffServ model to provide end-to-end QoS.
E. The DiffServ model is more scalable than the IntServ model.
F. The flow-based approach of the DiffServ model is ideal for large scalable implementations such as the public Internet.

Answer: BE

23. Which two statements are true about the various methods of implementing QoS? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Cisco AutoQoS can be used repeatedly to apply a single QoS policy to multiple interfaces.
B. Cisco AutoQoS includes an optional web-based GUI for automating the configuration of QoS services.
C. Cisco AutoQoS provides capabilities to automate VoIP deployments.
D. The auto qos global configuration command is used to configure Cisco AutoQoS.
E. The Modular QoS CLI (MQC) is the best way to fine tune QoS configurations.
F. The SDM QoS wizard is the fastest way to implement QoS.

Answer: CE

24. Which two statements are true about analog to digital conversion of voice signals for use in digital telephony networks? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The three required steps in the analog to digital conversion are sampling, encoding, and compression.
B. The three required steps in the analog to digital conversion are sampling, quantization, and compression.
C. The three required steps in the analog to digital conversion are sampling, quantization, and encoding.
D. The output of the sampling process is a pulse code modulation (PCM) signal.
E. The output of the sampling process is a pulse amplitude modulation (PAM) signal.

Answer: CE

25. Which two statements are true about the digital audio in a VoIP network? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Standard encoding techniques create an uncompressed digital data rate of 4000 bps.
B. Standard encoding techniques create an uncompressed digital data rate of 8000 bps.
C. Standard encoding techniques create an uncompressed digital data rate of 64,000 bps.
D. Voice quality is not a concern if compression is not used.
E. Two methods of quantization are linear and logarithmic.
F. Two methods of compression are u-law and a-law .

Answer: CE

26. Which statement is true about Foreign Exchange Station (FXS) ports on a router?
Select the best response.
A. The FXS interface allows an analog connection to be directed at the public switched telephone network (PSTN’s) central office.
B. The FXS interface connects directly to a standard telephone, fax machine, or similar device and supplies ring, voltage, and dial tone.
C. The FXS interface connects directly to an IP phone and supplies ring, voltage, and dial tone.
D. The FXS interface connects directly to ISDN voice channels.

Answer: B

27. Which two statements are true about voice ports on a router? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Calls to the PSTN can be made via the use of FXO or T1/E1 trunk ports.
B. Calls to the PSTN can be made via FXS or T1/E1 trunk ports.
C. Analog and IP phones can be connected to the VoIP network via FXO or T1/E1 trunk ports.
D. Calls between analog phones that are attached to the FXS ports in a VoIP network can be completely processed by voice-enabled routers.

Answer: AD

28. What are two major sources of delay that can be managed by QoS in voice-enabled networks? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. propagation delay
B. voice packet serialization delay
C. congested egress queues
D. header overhead
E. packets dropped because of CRC errors

Answer: CD

29. Which statement is true about a distributed call control environment and the processing of dialed digits from an IP phone?
Select the best response.
A. The router that is directly connected to the IP phone will look up the called number in its call routing table.
B. The router that is directly connected to the IP phone will inform its call agent when a service request is detected.
C. When the IP phone is picked up, the IP phone initiates the service request.
D. The directly connected router passes the collected digits to its call agent, and the call agent looks up in its call-routing table the called number.

Answer: A

30. What are two steps that are taken when a router converts a voice signal from analog to digital form? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. sampling
B. packetization
C. quantization
D. serialization

Answer: AC

31. Which three pieces of information are used to calculate the total bandwidth of a VoIP call? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. the packetization size
B. the serialization of the interface
C. the quantization
D. the packet rate
E. the UDP overhead
F. the TCP overhead

Answer: ADE

32. Which statement is true about the configuration of AutoQoS on a Frame Relay interface?
Select the best response.
A. AutoQoS can be configured from a different subinterface if the DLCI is already assigned to one subinterface.
B. Multilink PPP (MLP) over Frame Relay must be manually configured on low speed DLCIs.
C. For low-speed Frame Relay DLCIs with Frame Relay-to-ATM Interworking, the AutoQoS cannot be configured if a virtual template is already configured for the DLCI.
D. AutoQoS can be configured on a Frame Relay DLCI only if a map class is attached to the DLCI.

Answer: C

33. Which two statements about the DiffServ model are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. A class can be identified as a single application, multiple applications with similar service needs, or be based on the source or destination IP addresses.
B. A drawback of the DiffServ model is that it does not provide backward compatibility with devices that can only use the ToS field.
C. DiffServ uses the DiffServ field in the MAC header to mark frames into behavior aggregates (BAs).
D. The DiffServ field occupies the same eight bits of the MAC header that were previously used for the ToS field.
E. The first six high-order bits of the DiffServ field are used to identify the Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) value.
F. The primary goal of DiffServ is scalability.

Answer: AF

34. Which three statements about classification marking of traffic at Layer 2 are true? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. A Frame Relay header includes a 1-bit discard eligible (DE) bit to provide the class of service (CoS).
B. An ATM header includes a 1-bit DE field to provide the CoS.
C. An MPLS EXP field is inserted in the Layer 3 IP precedence field to identify the CoS.
D. The CoS field only exists inside Ethernet frames when 802.1Q or Inter-Switch Link (ISL) trunking is used.
E. In the IEEE 802.1p standard, three bits are used to identify the user priority bits for the CoS.
F. In the IEEE 802.1q standard, six bits are used to identify the user priority bits for the CoS.

Answer: ADE

35. In which three network technologies is traffic shaping used to prevent and manage congestion? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM)
B. Data-link switching (DLSw)
C. Route Processor Redundancy (RPR)
D. Frame Relay (FR)
E. Metro Ethernet
F. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)

Answer: ADE

36. Which two statements about the QoS functionality of the Cisco SDM are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The first step when using the SDM QoS wizard is to select the inbound interface on which the QoS policy must be applied.
B. The SDM QoS wizard can be used to optimize LAN, WAN, and VPN interfaces.
C. The SDM QoS wizard supports network-based application recognition (NBAR) to provide deep and stateful packet inspection.
D. The SDM QoS wizard will apply custom queuing and priority queuing policies to the identified interfaces.
E. The SDM QoS wizard will apply low latency-queuing, custom-queuing and priority-queuing policies to the identified interfaces.
F. To create and manage the QoS settings, the user must select the QoS wizard task under the Monitor option.

Answer: BC

37. Which two statements about the Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption mechanism are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The two methods of authentication using the WEP encryption are open and shared key.
B. The 802.11 standard defines WEP security using 128-bit keys.
C. WEP can provide stronger authentication through the use of LEAP, PEAP, or EAP-FAST.
D. WEP is a scalable encryption solution that uses static keys for authentication.
E. WEP security provides only one-way authentication.
F. WEPv2 offers improved encryption by replacing the RC4 encryption mechanism with the AES (symmetric block cipher) mechanism.

Answer: AE

38. Which two statements about the Wireless Control System (WCS) are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The Cisco WCS is designed to support 1500 Cisco WLAN controllers and up to 50 APs.
B. The Cisco WCS runs on a dedicated network device such as the Cisco 2700 network appliance.
C. The Cisco WCS runs on various Windows and Linux platforms.
D. The Cisco WCS screen displays four main menu sheet tabs consisting of Monitor, Configure, Security, and Alarm.
E. The Cisco WCS uses the SNMP protocol to communicate with the controllers.

Answer: CE

39. Which two statements about the Wireless Location Appliance are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. A Wireless Location Appliance acts as a server to one or more Cisco WCSs. It collects, stores, and passes on data from its associated Cisco WLAN controllers.
B. Before using the Web interface, the initial configuration of the Wireless Location appliance must be done using the command-line interface (CLI).
C. The Cisco 2000, 2700, 4100, and 4400 are examples of Wireless Location Appliances.
D. The Wireless Location Appliance visually displays the location information of WLAN devices and forwards this information to third-party applications using the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).
E. The Wireless Location Appliance visually tracks up to 15,000 WLAN devices and can store this information for 90 days.

Answer: AB

40. What best describes an FXO interface?
Select the best response.
A. analog trunks that provide the Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST) feature
B. analog trunks that provide VoIP gateway functionality
C. analog trunks that connect a gateway to plain old telephone service (POTS) device such as analog phones, fax machines, and legacy voice-mail systems
D. analog trunks that connect a gateway to a central office (CO) or private branch exchange (PBX)

Answer: D

41. Which two statements about the WLAN Solution Engine (WLSE) are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. WLSE supports centralized configuration.
B. WLSE supports distributed configuration.
C. WLSE can pick up statistics on a device even if the device is not properly configured.
D. WLSE can be used to upgrade the firmware on APs and bridges.
E. WLSE monitors device fault and performance conditions but cannot report any policy misconfigurations.

Answer: AD

42. A GRE tunnel is configured between a local and a remote site. Where should the service policy be applied to classify packets based on the pretunnel header?
Select the best response.
A. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy and use the qos pre-classify command.
B. In global configuration mode, apply the service policy but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
C. Apply the service policy on the physical interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
D. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface but do not use the qos pre-classify command.
E. Apply the service policy on the tunnel interface and use the qos pre-classify command.

Answer: D

43. Which QoS preclassification option will require the use of the qos pre-classify command for the VPN traffic?
Select the best response.
A. VPN traffic needs to be classified based on the Layer 2 header information.
B. VPN traffic needs to be classified based on the IP precedence or DSCP.
C. VPN traffic needs to be classified based on IP flow or Layer 3 information, such as source and destination IP address.
D. VPN traffic with Authentication Header (AH) needs to preserve the ToS byte.

Answer: C

44. To provide quality of service (QoS) for voice traffic in an IEEE 802.1q network, which class of service (CoS) value should be used in the 3-bit, user priority bits (PRI) field?
Select the best response.
A. The PRI field should contain the CoS value of 010.
B. The PRI field should contain the CoS value of 011.
C. The PRI field should contain the CoS value of 100.
D. The PRI field should contain the CoS value of 101.
E. The PRI field should contain the CoS value of 110.
F. The PRI field should contain the CoS value of 111.

Answer: D

45. What is the goal of QoS in a network?
Select the best response.
A. prevent packets from being dropped
B. increase available bandwidth
C. reduce hardware errors
D. provide predictable network service
E. eliminate propagation delay
F. eliminate jitter and packet loss

Answer: D

46. Which two IntServ functions are required on a router? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. admission control
B. DSCP classification
C. monitoring
D. marking
E. scheduling

Answer: AE

47. What is a drawback to using the IntServ model?
Select the best response.
A. RSVP that signals QoS requests per individual flow
B. not scalable to large implementations
C. admission control not supported
D. use of dynamic port numbers
E. UDP not supported

Answer: B

48. Which three statements are true about the application of QoS models? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. The DiffServ model requires applications to signal the network with QoS requirements.
B. The DiffServ model can be used to deliver QoS based upon IP precedence, or source and destination addresses.
C. The DiffServ model requires RSVP.
D. The best effort model is suitable for applications such as file transfer and e-mail
E. The IntServ model requires applications to signal the network with QoS requirements.
F. The IntServ model attempts to deliver a level of service based on the QoS specified by each packet

Answer: BDE

49. What are three considerations when choosing the QoS model to deploy in a network? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. the routing protocols being utilized in the network
B. the applications utilizing the network
C. the traffic destinations
D. network addressing scheme
E. cost of implementation
F. the amount of the control needed of the resources

Answer: BEF

50. What are two steps needed to define a QoS policy for a traffic class? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Determine a minimum bandwidth guarantee.
B. Determine interfaces to which to apply policy.
C. Assign priorities to the class.
D. Configure access control lists.

Answer: AC

51. Which three statements are true about the data traffic characteristics of voice traffic? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Latency must be kept below 150 ms.
B. Latency is not a concern as long as jitter is kept below 30 ms.
C. Voice packets do not require a specific type of queuing.
D. Voice packets are rather small
E. Voice packets require TCP for rapid retransmission of dropped packets.
F. Voice packets require a fairly constant bandwidth reserved for voice control traffic as well as for the voice payload.

Answer: ADF

52. Which statement is true about the comparison of voice traffic with video traffic?
Select the best response.
A. Video conferencing traffic tends to be much more bursty in nature and is more prone to have an impact on other traffic flows.
B. Latency requirements are less stringent for video traffic than for voice traffic.
C. Video traffic is less sensitive to dropped packets than for voice traffic.
D. Video traffic requires the retransmission capabilities of TCP whereas voice uses UDP.
E. Voice traffic tends to be much more bursty in nature and is more prone to have an impact on other traffic flows.
F. Voice traffic requires the retransmission capabilities of TCP whereas video uses UDP.

Answer: A

53. When analog signals are digitized using the G.711 codec, voice samples are encapsulated into protocol data units (PDUs) involving which three headers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. IP
B. TCP
C. RTP
D. UDP
E. H.323
F. cRTP

Answer: ACD

54. Which header or set of headers does cRTP compress?
Select the best response.
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 2 and Layer 3
E. Layer 3 and Layer 4

Answer: E

55. When a router converts analog signals to digital signals, what three steps are always included in the process? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. involution
B. encoding
C. sampling
D. quantization
E. compression
F. companding

Answer: BCD

56. Assume that network-based application recognition (NBAR) has been configured to gather traffic for all known protocols on an interface. Which command will display the statistical results of all recognized protocols?
Select the best response.
A. show ip nbar
B. show ip nbar pdlm
C. show ip nbar port-map
D. show ip nbar protocol-discovery

Answer: D

57. Which statement is true about the components of a queuing mechanism?
Select the best response.
A. Each subinterface has its own hardware queue and can experience congestion just like its main interface.
B. Hardware queuing is only used if the software queues are experiencing congestion.
C. Hardware queues and software queues are not used concurrently.
D. The hardware queuing system always uses the FIFO queuing mechanism.

Answer: D

58. Which two statements are true about the Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wi-Fi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2) security solutions? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Both WPA and WPA2 require authentication support via IEEE 802.1X and Pre-Shared Key (PSK).
B. Both WPA and WPA2 address all known Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) vulnerabilities in the IEEE 802.11i security implementation.
C. WPA is supported on client devices only. WPA2 is supported on both access point (AP) and client devices.
D. WPA provides only a standard for authentication. WPA2 provides a standard for authentication and encryption.
E. WPA requires encryption support via Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP). WPA2 provides encryption support via (symmetric block cipher) AES-CCMP.

Answer: AE

59. Which two Cisco AutoQoS configuration statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The auto discovery qos command is supported on serial interfaces, subinterfaces, and virtual interfaces.
B. CEF must be enabled before configuring the auto discovery qos command.
C. The auto discovery qos privilege EXEC command must be configured on a router for several days to collect a sampling of data traffic.
D. The auto qos trust command relies on NBAR to provide VoIP classification.
E. The auto qos voip command configures the VoIP classification on routers and switches.

Answer: BE

60. What accurately describes the usage of a Cisco AutoQoS command?
Select the best response.
A. On Catalyst switches, the show auto discovery qos command is used to display the data collected during the Auto-Discovery phase.
B. On Catalyst switches, the show auto qos command is used to display packet statistics of all classes that are configured for all service policies.
C. On Cisco routers, the show mls qos maps command is used to verify the CoS-to-DSCP maps for egress packet queuing.
D. On Cisco routers, the show auto qos command is used to display the AutoQoS interface templates, policy maps, class maps, and ACLs.

Answer: D

61. Which certification-based protocol is implemented for wireless QoS between an AP and a wireless client over RF media?
Select the best response.
A. WMM using DCF
B. WMM using EDCF
C. 802.1e using DCF
D. 802.1e using EDCF

Answer: B

62. A branch office of Acme Insurance has 15 IP phones connected to the main office using the distributed call processing model. Normally, the phones work with great quality. However, during very busy times when all of the agents are on the phone at the same time, the voice quality drops precipitously. Words or phrases or both are dropped from conversations. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
Select the best response.
A. Large files are being downloaded over the WAN network.
B. IP phone traffic is not being classified correctly.
C. More bandwidth is required for the office LAN.
D. Call Admission Control has not been implemented.
E. Employees are watching videos over the Internet.
F. Header compression is not being used.

Answer: D

63. What are three features of voice traffic on a network? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. bursty
B. constant
C. bandwidth intensive
D. small packet sizes
E. time-sensitive
F. retransmittable

Answer: BDE

64. A stream of voice packets transmitted over a WAN network encounters differing queuing delays. One router in the path used by the voice packets delays some of the packets for 4 ms while transmitting a large video file, but delays other packets only 2 ms. Another router delays some packets 5 ms, but transmits others in 2 ms. How would you best describe this type of problem?
Select the best response.
A. end-to-end delay
B. interference from bulk data traffic
C. processing delays
D. serialization delays
E. jitter

Answer: E

65. What are three of the functions that AutoQoS performs when it is configured on a switch? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. synchronizes FIFO, PQ, CQ, and MDRR with WFQ, CBWFQ, and LLQ
B. enables strict priority queuing for voice traffic, and weighted round robin queuing for data traffic
C. enables low latency queuing to ensure that voice traffic receives priority treatment
D. enforces a trust boundary on switch access ports and uplinks/downlinks
E. modifies queue sizes as well as queue weights where required
F. adjusts link speeds to adapt to QoS needs

Answer: BDE

66. What are two components of the Cisco Autonomous WLAN solution? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. WCS
B. WLSE
C. WLC
D. WDS
E. LWAPP

Answer: BD

67. What are two components of the Cisco Lightweight WLAN solution? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. WCS
B. WLSE
C. Location Appliance
D. WDS
E. WLSE-Express

Answer: AC

68. What are two features of WLSE-Express wireless management? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. centralized management for autonomous access points
B. centralized management for lightweight access points
C. centralized management that requires an external AAA server
D. centralized management with integrated AAA server
E. integration with the Location Appliance to expand real time tracking to 1500 devices for 30 days
F. integration with the Location Appliance to expand real time tracking to 2500 devices for 30 days

Answer: AD

69. What are two features of WCS wireless management? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. centralized management for autonomous access points
B. centralized management for lightweight access points
C. integration with the Location Appliance to expand real time tracking to 1500 devices for 30 days
D. integration with the Location Appliance to expand real time tracking to 2500 devices for 15 days
E. the inclusion of an integrated AAA server
F. an external AAA-server requirement

Answer: BC

70. After logging into the WCS wireless management server, the administrator is presented with the initial home page showing the network summary. There are four main menu choices across the top horizontal screen. What is the purpose of the Location menu choice?
Select the best response.
A. to configure the location and addition of a Wireless LAN Controller (WLC) using an IP address
B. to enable the “on demand” location of a single rogue AP or rogue client
C. to configure the communication with a Location Appliance
D. to configure the location and addition of a wireless access point using an IP address

Answer: C

71. What is the correct procedure for adding an access point in WCS?
Select the best response.
A. Choose Configure > Access_Point, then enter the AP MAC address.
B. Choose Configure > Access_Point, then enter the IP address of the AP.
C. Choose Configure > Controller, then enter the IP address of the WLC.
D. Wait until the WLC downloads its code from the WCS and choose the access point from the list under the WLC option of the Configure menu.
E. Wait until the AP downloads its code from the WCS and choose the access point from the list under the Access_Point option of the Configure menu.

Answer: C

72. Which two statements about the open and shared key wireless-authentication methods are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Shared key authentication is considered more secure than open authentication.
B. Shared key authentication is considered less secure than open authentication.
C. If the WEP keys do not match using the open authentication method, the client will not authenticate, associate, and transfer data.
D. If the WEP keys do not match using the open authentication method, the client will still be able to authenticate and associate, but will not transfer data.
E. If the WEP keys do not match using the open authentication method, the client will still be able to authenticate, associate, and transfer data.

Answer: BD

73. Which two statements best describe enhanced wireless security encryption? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. TKIP protects RC4 encryption keys.
B. CKIP and TKIP protect AES encryption keys.
C. TKIP encryption is more processor intensive than AES encryption is.
D. WPA requires TKIP encryption, whereas WPA2 supports AES encryption.
E. WPA requires AES encryption, whereas WPA2 supports TKIP encryption.

Answer: AD

74. Which statement is true about the capabilities of a voice gateway router?
Select the best response.
A. Voice gateways with analog interfaces need a gatekeeper to convert analog signals into digital format before voice is encapsulated into IP packets.
B. Voice gateways need a gatekeeper to interconnect the VoIP networks with the PSTN network.
C. Voice gateways with Cisco Unified CallManager Express (CME) can permanently act as a call agent for IP phones.
D. Voice gateways equipped with a DSP module can take the role of the call agent during WAN failure.

Answer: C

75. Which statement is true about the distributed call control in a VoIP network?
Select the best response.
A. The VoIP endpoints have the intelligence to set up and control calls.
B. Call setup and control functionality is centralized in one call agent or cluster.
C. Call setup and control resides in call agents that are distributed throughout the network.
D. Each VoIP device has separate call control, voice packetization, and transport mechanisms.

Answer: A

76. Using the G.729 codec and the default cRTP configuration, what is the approximate VoIP bandwidth savings across a Frame Relay link that adds a 6 byte frame header?
Select the best response.
A. 55%
B. 58%
C. 60%
D. 63%

Answer: B

77. The Acme company has determined that during its busiest hours, the average number of internal VoIP calls across the WAN link is four (4). Since this is an average, the WAN link has been sized for six (6) calls with no call admission control. What will happen when a seventh call is attempted across the WAN link?
Select the best response.
A. The seventh call is routed via the PSTN.
B. The call is denied and the original six (6) calls remain.
C. The call is completed and the first call is dropped.
D. The call is completed, but all calls have quality issues.
E. The call is completed but the seventh call has quality issues.

Answer: D

78. Acme Company has offices around the country. With the use of Cisco Unified CallManager, the company has deployed a VoIP network in a multisite centralized configuration. Which IOS gateway feature should be deployed to enable VoIP devices to register with a local gateway and continue to function when the connection to the Cisco Unified CallManager is broken?
Select the best response.
A. Gatekeeper multizone
B. Call Admission Control (CAC)
C. Automatic Alternate Routing (AAR)
D. Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST)

Answer: D

79. Acme Company has several offices around the country. The company has deployed a VoIP network with Cisco Unified CallManager in a multisite centralized configuration but there is a requirement to place a call agent at some of the remote sites. Which IOS gateway feature should be deployed at the remote site to enable local call control?
Select the best response.
A. Gatekeeper multizone
B. Call Admission Control (CAC)
C. Automatic Alternate Routing (AAR)
D. Survivable Remote Site Telephony (SRST)
E. Cisco Unified CallManager Express (CME)

Answer: E

80. Identify the link efficiency mechanism.
Select the best response.
A. LFI
B. LLQ
C. RSVP
D. WFQ
E. WRED

Answer: A

81. Refer to the exhibit. A router has a 256 kbps Frame Relay circuit connected to interface serial 0/0. As a large FTP packet is being placed into the hardware transmit queue of interface serial 0/0, a voice packet is placed into the priority queue of that interface. How, and in what order, will the packets be transmitted?
Select the best response.

A. The voice packet will be transmitted first, followed by the FTP packet in its entirety.
B. The voice packet will be transmitted first, followed by the fragmented FTP packet.
C. The FTP packet will be fragmented and the voice packet will be interleaved.
D. The FTP packet will be transmitted first in its entirety, followed by the voice packet.

Answer: D

82. In a VoIP network, which three call signaling protocols are supported by the Cisco CallManager for call setup, call maintenance, and call teardown? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. H.323
B. UDP
C. RTP
D. TCP
E. Media Gateway Control Protocol (MGCP)
F. session initiation protocol (SIP)

Answer: AEF

83. Refer to the exhibit. What type of interface will connect the voice gateway router R1 to the analog phone and the fax machine?
Select the best response.
A. The analog phone will be connected to the FXS port, and the fax machine will be connected to the FXO port on router R1.
B. The analog phone will be connected to the FXO port, and the fax machine will be connected to the FXS port on router R1.
C. Both devices will be connected to the FXS ports on router R1.
D. Both devices will be connected to the FXO ports on router R1.
E. Both devices will be connected to the E and M ports on router R1.

Answer: C

84. What type of services are provided by the Cisco IOS gateways in a VoIP network with Cisco CallManger functionality?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco IOS gateways provide services such as address translation and network access control for the devices on the network.
B. Cisco IOS gateways provide services such as bandwidth management and accounting.
C. Cisco IOS gateways provide media termination and signal translation between the public switched telephone network (PSTN) and IP networks.
D. Cisco IOS gateways provide zone management for all registered endpoints in the network.

Answer: C

85. What are two components of the QoS Integrated Services (IntServ) model? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. link efficiency
B. admission control
C. classification and marking
D. shaping and policing
E. congestion avoidance using the RTP protocol
F. resource reservation using the RSVP protocol

Answer: BF

86. Which QoS model manages the QoS requirements for the network on a per-hop behavior (PHB) basis?
Select the best response.
A. best-effort delivery
B. ingress committed rate (ICR)
C. shaping and policing
D. egress committed rate (ECR)
E. Integrated Services (IntServ)
F. differentiated services (DiffServ)

Answer: F

87. Refer to the exhibit. What QoS model should be used to reserve the requested bandwidth and delay needed for each allowed VoIP call regardless of changing network conditions?
Select the best response.
A. best-effort delivery
B. ingress committed rate (ICR)
C. shaping and policing
D. egress committed rate (ECR)
E. Integrated Services (IntServ)
F. differentiated services (DiffServ)

Answer: E

88. Which two statements are true about the protocols that are used for transmitting voice traffic? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. RTP multiplexing is used to keep multiple phone conversations separate.
B. RTP provides end-to-end delivery services for voice traffic.
C. UDP is used to ensure a reliable transmission from sender to receiver.
D. RTP is used to provide resource reservation for the voice stream.
E. UDP provides multiplexing of multiple phone conversations.

Answer: BE

89. What best describes processing delay?
Select the best response.
A. the time required from receipt of the incoming frame, until the frame/packet has been queued for transmission
B. the time taken for a single packet to traverse the physical medium from one end to the other
C. the time taken to place a frame on the physical medium for transport
D. the time spent for a packet to reside in the output queue of a router

Answer: A

90. What are two reasons for packet loss on a VoIP connection? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. serialization delay
B. overrun
C. full buffers and queues
D. propagation delay
E. shaping delay
F. TCP header errors

Answer: BC

91. What is the best description of serialization delay?
Select the best response.
A. the time it takes for a Layer 3 switch or a router to switch a packet from an inbound interface to the queue of the outbound interface
B. the time it takes for a packet to propagate from source to destination
C. the time it takes to place a frame on the physical medium for transport
D. the time a packet resides in the outbound queue of a router

Answer: C

92. Which technology can be used to help prevent DoS attacks on infrastructure devices such as routers and switches?
Select the best response.
A. MAC address filtering
B. control plane policing
C. AAA
D. SNMP
E. rate-limiting

Answer: B

93. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
Select the best response.
A. Telnet traffic originating from the router will be rate limited unless it is destined for hosts 10.1.1.1 or 10.1.1.2.
B. The configuration will not rate limit any Telnet traffic until it is applied to a router interface.
C. All Telnet traffic destined for the router will be rate limited.
D. Telnet traffic from hosts 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2 destined for the router will not be rate limited.

Answer: D

94. What are three Cisco Unified CallManager features? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. programming interface to external applications
B. FXS and FXO port negotiation
C. AutoQos VoIP trust boundaries
D. signaling and device control
E. LLQ for voice and video traffic
F. directory and XML services

Answer: ADF

95. What management tool could be used to provide centralized configuration, monitoring, and management in a network built on Cisco wireless LAN controllers and Lightweight APs?
Select the best response.
A. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)
B. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) Express
C. Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS)
D. Wireless Domain Services (WDS)
E. WLAN Controllers (WLC)

Answer: C

96. How does weighted random early detection (WRED) prevent packet loss?
Select the best response.
A. increases link capacity
B. increases buffer space to accommodate bursts of traffic from delay-sensitive applications
C. provides prioritized forwarding for drop-sensitive applications
D. drops lower priority packets before congestion occurs
E. separates traffic into as many as 64 queues that can be uniquely prioritized

Answer: D

97. What are three types of packet delays that occur in a network? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. timing
B. queuing
C. differential
D. serialization
E. packetization
F. propagation

Answer: BDF

98. What are two ways to minimize the delay of VoIP packets that are traversing a network? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Use WFQ, CBWFQ, and LLQ to prioritize delay-sensitive packets.
B. Use WFQ, CBWFQ, and LLQ to compress the payload.
C. Give TCP packets priority over UDP packets.
D. Use control plane policing for cRTP queuing.
E. Use stacker and predictor to compress the payload.

Answer: AE

99. What are three factors used to determine the amount of bandwidth that is required for a single VoIP call? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. codec
B. link speed
C. Layer 2 encapsulation
D. packet overhead (IP/UDP/RTP)
E. link delay
F. total number of simultaneous calls that are allowed

Answer: ACD

100. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the function of the frame-relay voice-bandwidth 24000 command that is shown in the partial configuration?
Select the best response.

A. It limits the total bandwidth available on the Frame Relay link.
B. It provides call admission control by limiting the number of voice calls over the Frame Relay link.
C. It sets up IP RTP Priority features that reserve bandwidth for voice traffic flows.
D. It is functionally equivalent to configuring LLQ.
E. It limits the bandwidth that is taken by individual voice calls to 24000 b/s.

Answer: B

101. What are two reasons to implement H.323 gatekeepers? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. to eliminate the need for VoIP gateways
B. to scale a VoIP installation with multiple gateways
C. to provide call admission control and limit the number of simultaneous calls on the network
D. to meet the requirement to control H.323 gateways on a LAN
E. to accept call requests and reduce the load on the gateway

Answer: BC

102. Refer to the exhibit. The network has been configured with H.323 gateways and gatekeepers as shown. Which statement is true when a call is placed?
Select the best response.
A. A gatekeeper is contacted to determine the correct local gateway to use.
B. A gateway will receive the call and forward a call request to the local gatekeeper.
C. A gateway will receive the call and forward a call request to the gatekeeper on the other side of the WAN.
D. A gatekeeper will receive the call and forward a call request to the remote gateway.

Answer: B

103. Refer to the exhibit. What will the H.323 gateways do when they receive a call request?
Select the best response.
A. forward an admission request to the local gatekeeper
B. forward an admission request to the remote gatekeeper
C. send a location request to the remote gateway
D. send a location request to the remote gatekeeper

Answer: A

104. What is the term that is used to describe the process of converting a signal from digital to analog?
Select the best response.
A. packetization
B. quantization
C. decoding
D. sampling

Answer: C

105. Which two options can be used as traffic descriptors when classifying and marking traffic? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. incoming interface
B. Layer 2 differentiated services code point (DSCP)
C. Layer 3 IP precedence
D. outgoing interface

Answer: AC

106. What are three problems with the tail drop mechanism of managing interface congestion? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Queuing introduces equal delays for packets of the same flow, resulting in jitter.
B. When congestion occurs, dropping affects most of the TCP sessions, which simultaneously back off and then restart again.
C. All buffers can temporarily be seized by aggressive flows, and normal TCP flows experience buffer starvation.
D. There is no differentiated drop mechanism. Higher priority traffic is dropped in the same way as best-effort traffic.
E. In TCP starvation, traffic exceeds the queue limit because of the bursty nature of packet networks. A router cannot handle multiple concurrent TCP sessions.
F. Global synchronization occurs because multiple TCP hosts reduce their transmission rates at random intervals in response to packet dropping.

Answer: BCD

107. Cisco provides two enhancements to 802.11 security which protect a WEP key from exploits. Which two technologies provide these security enhancements? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. 802.1x
B. Cisco Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (CKIP)
C. Extensible Authentication Protocol-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling (EAP-FAST)
D. Cisco Message Integrity Check (CMIC)
E. One-Time Passwords (OTP)
F. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Answer: BD

108. Which two QoS classification and marking statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. In a Frame Relay network, delay sensitive traffic is tagged with the discard eligible (DE) bit.
B. In an MPLS network, the three most significant bits of the DSCP or the IP precedence of the IP packet are copied into the MPLS EXP field.
C. In an MPLS network, the MPLS EXP bits are used to identify up to 16 CoS values.
D. The differentiated services code point (DSCP) field consists of the first three bits of the IP precedence field in the header of an IP packet.
E. The 802.1Q standard uses a three bit field referred to as the user priority bits (PRI) to mark packets as belonging to a specific CoS.

Answer: BE

109. Which two pairings match the application with the correct CoS value? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. CoS 0 = Best-Effort Data
B. CoS 1 = Best-Effort Data
C. CoS 3 = High Priority Data
D. CoS 4 = High Priority Data
E. CoS 5 = Voice Bearer
F. CoS 7 = Voice Bearer

Answer: AE

110. Which two characteristics are common between traffic policing and traffic shaping? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. The rate of traffic is measured and compared to a configured policy.
B. Classification is used to differentiate traffic.
C. Traffic is marked and sent out according to priority.
D. Both can be applied to inbound and outbound traffic.
E. Both buffer traffic to ensure a predetermined traffic rate.
F. Both drop traffic that is above a predetermined traffic rate.

Answer: AB

111. Refer to the exhibit. The router receives an Ethernet frame that contains an IP datagram of 1500 bytes. The packet will be forwarded if it conforms to the traffic policing policy that is applied outgoing on the serial interface. Using single token-bucket class-based policing, which three settings would allow the entire packet to be transmitted during time period T_c? Assume the token bucket is full of tokens. (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. CIR = 1.536 Mb/s, T_c = 100 msec
B. CIR = 1.536 Mb/s, T_c = 10 msec
C. CIR = 1.536 Mb/s, T_c = 1 msec
D. CIR = 512 Kb/s, T_c = 100 msec
E. CIR = 512 Kb/s, T_c = 10 msec
F. CIR = 512 Kb/s, T_c = 1 msec

Answer: ABD

112. Which two statements or sets of statements are true about the application of the qos pre-classify command? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. If the classification policy is based upon the ToS byte, the qos pre-classify command is required because the ToS byte only appears in the inner IP header.
B. The ToS byte is copied to the outer header by default. Therefore, the qos pre-classify command is not necessary.
C. With GRE encapsulation, the qos pre-classify command is applied on the tunnel interface. This practice allows for different QoS configurations on each tunnel.
D. With GRE encapsulation, the qos pre-classify command is applied on the physical interface. This practice allows for different QoS configurations on each interface.
E. With IPsec encapsulation, the qos pre-classify command is applied on the physical interface. This practice allows for different QoS configurations on each interface.

Answer: BC

113. Which device is normally used to translate telephone numbers or names to IP addresses for call routing in an H.323 network?
Select the best response.
A. call agent
B. IP phone
C. multipoint control unit
D. gatekeeper

Answer: D

114. Refer to the exhibit. Which option correctly describes the order of signaling and call processing events when a branch employee calls headquarters?
Select the best response.
A. P,S,T,U
B. U,T,S,P
C. S,U,P,T
D. P,U,S,T
E. S,P,U,T
F. S,P,T,U

Answer: C

115. Which three functions are associated with a Cisco Unified CallManager? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. connects traditional telephony devices to voice over IP infrastructure
B. converts analog signals to digital format
C. performs voice compression
D. performs call processing
E. performs dial plan administration
F. performs signaling and device control

Answer: DEF

116. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum available bandwidth for the path between the workstation and the server?
Select the best response.
A. 256 kb/s
B. 512 kb/s
C. 1 Mb/s
D. 10 Mb/s
E. 100 Mb/s
F. 110.768 Mb/s

Answer: A

117. Refer to the exhibit. What three actions can be taken to guarantee QoS for voice traffic? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Implement traffic policing on the ISP routers.
B. Prioritize traffic on customer routers.
C. Configure random early detection on the customer routers.
D. Implement TCP/RTP header compression on the links between the customer and ISP routers.
E. Implement network-based application recognition (NBAR) on the ISP routers.
F. Configure low latency queuing (LLQ) on the customer routers.

Answer: BDF

118. Which two statements are true about Voice over IP (VoIP) packet delivery in a digital infrastructure? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Packets can arrive out of order.
B. Packets must take the same path to the destination.
C. Once packets are received at the destination router, the router performs sampling to ensure the quality of the voice traffic.
D. Packets can experience varying delays across the network.
E. Packets containing voice samples are sequentially numbered by default, allowing for reordering upon arrival at the terminal router along the path.

Answer: AD

119. A network administrator noticed that a router has been experiencing abnormally high route processor CPU utilization near 100%. Such utilization cannot be explained by known traffic patterns. The network administrator determined that the router has been the target of DoS attacks. What QoS feature should be configured on the router to help protect it from DoS attacks?
Select the best response.
A. CPU Reservation Policing
B. traffic shaping
C. weighted RED
D. Control Plane Policing

Answer: D

120. Refer to the exhibit. A Wireless Location Appliance has been included in the wireless network. Which statement is true about the location calculation process performed by the Location Appliance?
Select the best response.

A. The access points (APs) collect and aggregate the received-signal-strength-indication (RSSI) information from all Wi-Fi devices on the network and send it to the Location Appliance by way of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).
B. The access points (APs) collect and aggregate the received-signal-strength-indication (RSSI) information from all Wi-Fi devices on the network and send it to the Location Appliance through the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP).
C. The wireless LAN controllers aggregate the received-signal-strength-indication (RSSI) information from the lightweight access points (APs) and send it to the Location Appliance by way of the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP).
D. The wireless LAN controllers collect and aggregate the received-signal-strength-indication (RSSI) information from all Wi-Fi devices on the network and send it to the Location Appliance through the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP).

Answer: C

121. Which three options are prerequisites to configuring Cisco AutoQoS? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) must be globally enabled.
B. Prior to the enabling of the Cisco AutoQoS feature, the bandwidth command must be applied on all interfaces or subinterfaces.
C. After the enabling of the Cisco AutoQoS feature, the bandwidth command must be applied on all interfaces or subinterfaces .
D. QoS policies must be enabled on all interfaces that will participate in the AutoQoS configuration.
E. An IP address must be configured on all low-bandwidth interfaces (768 kb/s or lower) that will participate in the AutoQoS configuration.
F. An IP address must be configured on all interfaces that will participate in the AutoQoS configuration.

Answer: ABE

122. What are the three models of quality of service (QoS) in a network?
Select 3 response(s).
A. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)
B. first-in, first-out (FIFO)
C. best-effort
D. CBWFQ
E. IntServ
F. DiffServ

Answer: CEF

123. Within the WMM policy, how many default QoS radio access categories are there?
Select the best response.
A. 8
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3

Answer: C

124. What is an advantage of the IntServ QoS model?
Select the best response.
A. It supports admission control that allows a network to reject or downgrade new RSVP sessions if one of the interfaces in the path has reached the limit (that is, all reservable bandwidth is booked).
B. RSVP signals QoS requests per individual flow. In the request the authorized user (authorization object) and needed traffic policy (policy object) are sent. The network can then provide best-effort delivery to these individual flows.
C. RSVP streamlines communication by making it unnecessary to inform network devices of flow parameters (IP addresses and port numbers).
D. Because of the stateful RSVP architecture, continuous signaling does not have to occur.
E. The flow-based approach is scalable to large implementations, such as the public Internet, because RSVP tracks each individual flow.

Answer: A

125. Refer to the exhibit. The column headings A, B, and C, represent Layer 2 and 3 QoS packet marking methods. Which option correctly matches the QoS marking method with its values?
Select the best response.
A. A = 802.11e priority values, B = 802.1p priority values, C = DSCP priority values
B. A = 802.11e priority values, B = DSCP priority values, C = 802.1p priority values
C. A = 802.1p priority values, B = 802.11e priority values, C = DSCP priority values
D. A = 802.1p priority values, B = DSCP priority values, C = 802.11e priority values
E. A = DSCP priority values, B = 802.1e priority values, C = 802.11p priority values
F. A = DSCP priority values, B = 802.1p priority values, C = 802.11e priority values

Answer: F

126. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, where is LWAPP encapsulation implemented?
Select the best response.

A. LWAPP encapsulation occurs between the WLAN access point and the wireless clients.
B. LWAPP encapsulation occurs between the wireless LAN controller and the wireless clients.
C. LWAPP encapsulation occurs between the wired switch and the wireless clients.
D. LWAPP encapsulation occurs between the wireless LAN controller and the WLAN access point.
E. LWAPP encapsulation occurs between the wired switch and the WLAN access point.
F. LWAPP encapsulation occurs between the wired switch and the wireless LAN controller.

Answer: D

127. Refer to the exhibit. What is the configuration an example of?
Select the best response.

A. enabling modular QoS over Frame Relay
B. enabling Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) header compression
C. enabling distributed compressed Transmission Control Protocol
D. enabling latency and jitter reduction for Transmission Control traffic
E. enabling TCP header compression

Answer: E

128. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are to be configured as VoIP gateways. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which dial peer configuration would be valid?
Select the best response.
A. R1(config)# dial-peer voice 1 pots
R1(config-dial-peer)# destination-pattern 1111
R1(config-dial-peer)# port 1/0/0
B. R1(config)# dial-peer voice 1 voip
R1(config-dial-peer)# destination-pattern 1111
R1(config-dial-peer)# port 1/0/0
C. R2(config)# dial-peer voice 1 pots
R2(config-dial-peer)# destination-pattern 1111
R2(config-dial-peer)# port 1/0/0
D. R2(config)# dial-peer voice 1 voip
R2(config-dial-peer)# destination-pattern 1111
R2(config-dial-peer)# port 1/0/0

Answer: A

129. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are to be configured as VoIP gateways. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which dial peer configuration would be valid?
Select the best response.
A. R1(config)# dial-peer voice 2 pots
R1(config-dial-peer)# destination-pattern 1111
R1(config-dial-peer)# session target ipv4:10.1.1.1
B. R1(config)# dial-peer voice 2 voip
R1(config-dial-peer)# destination-pattern 1111
R1(config-dial-peer)# session target ipv4:10.1.1.1
C. R2(config)# dial-peer voice 2 pots
R2(config-dial-peer)# destination-pattern 1111
R2(config-dial-peer)# session target ipv4:10.1.1.1
D. R2(config)# dial-peer voice 2 voip
R2(config-dial-peer)# destination-pattern 1111
R2(config-dial-peer)# session target ipv4:10.1.1.1

Answer: D

130. Refer to the exhibit. A portion of the template that was generated on a Cisco router by AutoQoS is displayed. Which two signaling protocols are classified? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. MGCP
B. RTCP
C. SQLnet
D. Citrix
E. H.323

Answer: AE

131. Which two methods are available for modifying the active Cisco AutoQoS configuration on a router? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. TFTP in ROM Monitor mode
B. QoS Policy Manager (QPM)
C. Security Device Manager (SDM)
D. command-line interface (CLI)

Answer: BD

132. What is the maximum number of access points that can be supported from a single Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) console?
Select the best response.
A. 1000
B. 1500
C. 2000
D. 2500
E. 3000
F. 3500

Answer: D

133. Which three benefits are realized by implementing Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. improved WLAN security
B. simplified AP deployment
C. dynamic RF management
D. on-demand location of rogue APs
E. system-wide control of status and alarm monitoring
F. automatic channel and power level adjustment

Answer: ABC

134. When deploying a Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) with the 2700 series location appliance, to within what range is on-demand location of rogue APs possible?
Select the best response.
A. 1 meter
B. 5 meters
C. 10 meters
D. 25 meters
E. 33 meters

Answer: C

135. Which three user interfaces exist for the Cisco WLAN Controllers? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)
B. command-line interface (CLI)
C. Wireless Control System (WCS)
D. TFTP
E. an HTTPS web user interface
F. an HTTP web user interface

Answer: BCE

136. End-to-end QoS is maintained in the Cisco WLAN deployment model by utilizing what parameter in lieu of 802.1p?
Select the best response.
A. IP precedence
B. type of service (ToS)
C. class of service (CoS)
D. differentiated services code point (DSCP)

Answer: D

137. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded based upon the displayed settings in this page of the wireless controller graphical user interface?

Select the best response.
A. Wireless clients are required to be WMM/802.11e compliant to use WLAN ID 1.
B. QoS service is offered to WMM/802.11e capable wireless clients and default QoS is offered for non-WMM/802.11e wireless clients.
C. WMM/802.11e QoS requests will be ignored.
D. The session will time out in one hour.
E. The WLAN ID is the association from the WLAN SSID to a unique administratively defined number that in turn corresponds to security policies.

Answer: C

138. The Cisco SDM will create a QoS policy that provides services to two types of traffic. Which two statements indicate the default QoS parameters that are created by SDM? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Business-critical traffic will be sorted into two QoS classes.
B. Real-time traffic will be sorted into one QoS class.
C. Voice traffic will be considered real-time traffic while call signaling will be considered business-critical.
D. All traffic except real-time will be considered best-effort.
E. Routing, management, and transactional traffic will be considered business-critical.
F. Voice and call signaling traffic will be considered real-time.

Answer: EF

139. When Cisco SDM is used to generate QoS policy, various QoS classes will be created and assigned a percentage of the interface bandwidth. Which three statements indicate the default bandwidth values that are assigned by SDM for outgoing traffic on a WAN interface? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Voice traffic will be assigned 47% of the interface bandwidth.
B. Voice call signaling will be assigned 33% of the interface bandwidth.
C. Telnet, SSH, and other traffic that is generated to manage the router is assigned 5% of the interface bandwidth.
D. Best-effort traffic will be assigned 38% of the interface bandwidth.
E. Routing protocol traffic will be assigned 5% of the interface bandwidth.
F. Transactional traffic will be assigned 5% of the interface bandwidth.

Answer: CEF

140. Which statement is true about the Call Admission Control (CAC) feature in VoIP networks?
Select the best response.
A. CAC is used to allocate enough bandwidth for the number of calls that are allowed on the VoIP network.
B. CAC is used to protect the quality of the voice calls by preventing call establishment if enough resources are not available on the network.
C. CAC provides queuing mechanisms for voice calls if the packets exceed the configured or budgeted rate.
D. In a VoIP network the CAC can be replaced with the LLQ QoS mechanism if it has been properly implemented.

Answer: B

141. What can be used to maintain the voice quality on a link by limiting the number of calls that can be active at any given time?
Select the best response.
A. Call Management Link Agent
B. Traffic policing
C. Call Admission Control
D. QoS Link Congestion Management
E. Oversubscription Link Detection

Answer: C

142. Which two VoIP capabilities are utilized when the CallManager and the gateway are configured for Survivable Remote Site Telephony? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Analog phones, connected to the PSTN, act as internal call agents if IP communication to the CallManager is lost.
B. An onsite gateway reroutes calls over the PSTN if IP communication to the CallManager is lost.
C. The IP phones can reroute calls over the PSTN if IP communication to the CallManager is lost.
D. Local voice gateways can assume the function of a call agent if IP communication to the CallManager is lost.
E. IP phones use an internal call agent if IP communication to the CallManager is lost.

Answer: BD

143. Which two statements are correct about the signaling methods that are utilized for transmitting voice? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Channel-associated signaling transmits control signals in band and therefore reduces the bandwidth available for the voice data stream.
B. Channel-associated signaling utilizes a separate TDM channel for transmitting control signals.
C. Common channel signaling transmits control signals in band and therefore reduces the bandwidth available for the voice data stream.
D. Common channel signaling uses one of the TDM channels to transmit control information reducing the number of channels available for voice.
E. ISDN BRIs implement channel-associated signaling.

Answer: AD

144. Which three practices are important to the implementation of a DiffServ QoS architecture? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Because services are allocated throughout the network before the transmission of data begins, traffic classes can be guaranteed QoS services.
B. Traffic classes are marked with Layer 2 markings to allow for more granularity in identifying traffic classes.
C. Traffic classes are marked with Layer 3 markings to allow them to traverse different network types without loss of QoS information.
D. Traffic classes allow networks to provide proper QoS treatment of packets without applications having to request services.
E. Based upon the network capabilities, QoS markings are placed on packets as needed throughout the network to allow for proper QoS treatment of packets.
F. QoS markings are placed on packets as close to the network edge as possible to allow distribution and core devices to determine QoS actions as quickly as possible.

Answer: CDF

145. Refer to the exhibit. An IP packet, Ethernet frame, and MPLS frame are shown. Which two statements are correct about the QoS marking relationships between them? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. A provider MPLS network will utilize IP precedence, CoS or EXP bits to provide QoS service through the provider network.
B. QoS markings from the Ethernet frame or IP packet will be mapped to MPLS EXP bits to allow for QoS service to be continued through a provider network.
C. MPLS mappings by the provider will change the IP ToS bits as a packet traverses an MPLS network.
D. Some networks require Ethernet CoS bits to be mapped to IP ToS bits because end devices can only mark at Layer 3.
E. Mapping CoS bits from the Ethernet frame to the IP ToS bits can be provisioned only at the edge of the provider network.

Answer: BD

146. In the design of a QoS solution, which two factors should be taken into consideration? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. On congested links, all forms of traffic will require some form of QoS.
B. All traffic types and requirements should be examined to determine the number of traffic classes required.
C. In the implementation of link efficiency mechanisms on links that typically transport relatively large packets, header compression will be most efficient.
D. In the implementation of link efficiency mechanisms on links that typically transport relatively small packets, header compression will be most efficient.
E. In the implementation of link efficiency mechanisms on links that typically transport relatively small packets, payload compression will be most efficient.
F. Payload compression provides more available bandwidth and reduces processing delay time.

Answer: BD

147. In a VoIP network, which type of interface would an analog fax machine connect to?
Select the best response.
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. FXS
D. FXO
E. E&M

Answer: C

148. Which set of steps represents the correct sequence a router would take when converting an analog signal to a digital signal?
Select the best response.
A. Step 1: quantization
Step 2: sampling
Step 3: encoding
B. Step 1: sampling
Step 2: encoding
Step 3: quantization
C. Step 1: quantization
Step 2: sampling
Step 3: encoding
D. Step 1: sampling
Step 2: quantization
Step 3: encoding

Answer: D

149. What is the purpose of the Control Plane Policing (CoPP) feature of a network device?
Select the best response.
A. to protect the CPU from high utilization
B. to direct traffic across the control plane to its appropriate destination
C. to protect the control plane against excessive legitimate IP data traffic
D. to protect the control plane against DoS attacks
E. to protect the route processor from resource exhaustion from legitimate IP data packets

Answer: D

150. Refer to the exhibit. This QoS policy will be applied outgoing on FastEthernet0/1 interface. Which one of the following QoS classes is not enabled but will be listed in the configuration summary?
Select the best response.
A. SDMVoice-FastEthernet0/1
B. SDMSignal-FastEthernet0/1
C. SDMTrans-FastEthernet0/1
D. SDMManage-FastEthernet0/1
E. SDMRout-FastEthernet0/1
F. SDMBulk-FastEthernet0/1

Answer: F

151. Which Control Plane Policing (CoPP) statement is true?
Select the best response.
A. Traffic to be policed is identified using the control-plane global configuration command.
B. The control-plane global configuration command enters the Cisco Modular QoS CLI (MQC) mode.
C. The control-plane global configuration command enters the control-plane configuration mode.
D. Traffic to be policed is identified using the control-plane interface configuration command.
E. The control-plane interface configuration command enters the Cisco Modular QoS CLI (MQC) mode.
F. The control-plane interface configuration command enters the control-plane configuration mode.

Answer: C

152. Refer to the exhibit. The QoS policy will be applied outgoing on an interface. Based on the indicated bandwidth allocation, which statement is true?
Select the best response.
A. Bandwidth allocation is set to default values.
B. This QoS policy will be applied to an Ethernet interface.
C. When traffic from an FTP session exceeds more than 25% of the outgoing bandwidth on the interface, it will be dropped.
D. Voice traffic on the interface will restrict all remaining traffic to 50% of the bandwidth.
E. Real Time traffic will be allocated 50% of 50000 kb/s.
F. The three types of traffic must share the interface bandwidth.

Answer: F

153. Refer to the exhibit. Wireless security is based on IEEE 802.1x with WPA. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

Select 3 response(s).
A. The access point is an EAP supplicant.
B. The client is an EAP supplicant.
C. Client traffic will be encrypted by an AES cryptographic algorithm.
D. Client traffic will be encrypted by an RC4 cryptographic algorithm.
E. The client is operating in WPA personal mode.
F. The client is operating in WPA enterprise mode.

Answer: BDF

154. Refer to the exhibit. Wireless security is based on IEEE 802.1x with WPA2. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. The access point is an EAP authenticator.
B. The client is an EAP authenticator.
C. Client traffic will be encrypted by an AES cryptographic algorithm.
D. Client traffic will be encrypted by TKIP.
E. Client authentication uses PSK.

Answer: AC

155. Which option correctly identifies the four main menus of a Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS)?
Select the best response.
A. Home, Configure, Location, and Monitor
B. Home, Configure, Monitor, and Refresh
C. Home, Monitor, Refresh, and Administration
D. Monitor, Configure, Location, and Administration
E. Monitor, Configure, Refresh, and Administration
F. Monitor, Location, Refresh, and Administration

Answer: D

156. Which two commands should be entered on a WLAN controller to remove any residual configuration?
Select the best response.
A. Enter the clear controller command followed by the reload command.
B. Enter the clear controller command followed by the reset command.
C. Enter the clear controller command followed by the reset system command.
D. Enter the erase startup-config command followed by the reload command.
E. Enter the erase startup-config command followed by the reset command.
F. Enter the erase startup-config command followed by the reset system command.

Answer: B

157. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the table that is displayed in the lower left hand corner? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. This section is called the Alarm Monitor Area.
B. This section is called the Alarm Control Area.
C. This section is called the System Status Area.
D. Orange alarms indicate a major alarm.
E. Red alarms indicate a major alarm.
F. Yellow alarms indicate no problems.

Answer: AD

158. Which set of classes correctly identifies the four traffic classes, from highest priority to lowest priority, specified in the 802.11e standard?
Select the best response.
A. gold, silver, bronze, and platinum
B. platinum, gold, silver, and bronze
C. titanium, gold, silver, and bronze
D. voice and video, best effort, background, and scavenger
E. voice, video, best effort, and background
F. voice, video, best effort, and scavenger

Answer: E

159. Which two statements about the Wi-Fi Multimedia (WMM) standard are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Lower-priority traffic is assigned short interframe wait-timers to allow higher-priority traffic access to the wireless network first.
B. Packets that are not assigned to a specific access category are categorized by default as the background access category.
C. The WMM standard was implemented after the 802.11e standard was approved to provide support for non 802.11e devices.
D. WMM is a Wi-Fi Alliance standard that was implemented before the 802.11e standard was approved.
E. WMM uses Enhanced DCF (EDCF) to stipulate fixed and random wait times for the different access classes.

Answer: DE

160. When QoS levels in the Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) are entered, which profile names are used to identify the access categories?
Select the best response.
A. platinum, gold, silver, and bronze
B. voice, gold, silver, and bronze
C. low delay, network critical, business, best effort
D. voice, video, background gold, background silver, and best effort
E. voice, video, best effort, and background
F. voice, video, best effort, background, and scavenger

Answer: A

161. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct about the implementation of QoS across the WANs that are shown? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN A.
B. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN A.
C. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN A.
D. QoS cannot be maintained across WAN B.
E. The service provider is not involved in providing QoS services in WAN B.
F. The service provider can provide QoS services through the cloud in WAN B.

Answer: BF

162. Refer to the exhibit. The network in the diagram has contracted with a service provider for the QoS levels that are shown. Which statement is correct about the QoS requirements for the campus and remote branch?
Select the best response.
A. Because adequate levels of service are provided across the WAN, campus and remote branch QoS will not be required.
B. The enterprise campus can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
C. The enterprise remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.
D. The enterprise campus plus the remote branch can allow no more than 90 ms of delay, 10 ms of jitter, and 0.5% loss to maintain adequate levels of QoS for voice.

Answer: D

163. Which of the items stated is typically the most expensive method of improving QoS across WAN links?
Select the best response.
A. advanced queuing
B. data compression
C. header compression
D. increasing link capacity

Answer: D

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1. Which two statements about common network attacks are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. Access attacks can consist of password attacks, trust exploitation, port redirection, and man-in-the-middle attacks.
B. Access attacks can consist of password attacks, ping sweeps, port scans, and man-in-the-middle attacks.
C. Access attacks can consist of packet sniffers, ping sweeps, port scans, and man-in-the-middle attacks.
D. Reconnaissance attacks can consist of password attacks, trust exploitation, port redirection and Internet information queries.
E. Reconnaissance attacks can consist of packet sniffers, port scans, ping sweeps, and Internet information queries.
F. Reconnaissance attacks can consist of ping sweeps, port scans, man-in-middle attacks and Internet information queries.

Answer: AE

2. Which two statements about management protocols are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. Syslog version 2 or above should be used because it provides encryption of the syslog messages.
B. NTP version 3 or above should be used because these versions support a cryptographic authentication mechanism between peers.
C. SNMP version 3 is recommended since it provides authentication and encryption services for management packets.
D. SSH, SSL and Telnet are recommended protocols to remotely manage infrastructure devices.
E. TFTP authentication (username and password) is sent in an encrypted format, and no additional encryption is required.

Answer: BC

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the AAA configuration are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. A good security practice is to have the none parameter configured as the final method used to ensure that no other authentication method will be used.
B. If a TACACS+ server is not available, then a user connecting via the console port would not be able to gain access since no other authentication method has been defined.
C. If a TACACS+ server is not available, then the user Bob could be able to enter privileged mode as long as the proper enable password is entered.
D. The aaa new-model command forces the router to override every other authentication method previously configured for the router lines.
E. To increase security, group radius should be used instead of group tacacs+.
F. Two authentication options are prescribed by the displayed aaa authentication command.

Answer: DF

4. What are the two main features of Cisco IOS Firewall? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. TACACS+
B. AAA
C. Cisco Secure Access Control Server
D. Intrusion Prevention System
E. Authentication Proxy

Answer: DE

5. What three features does Cisco Security Device Manager (SDM) offer? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. smart wizards and advanced configuration support for NAC policy features
B. single-step mitigation of Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks
C. one-step router lockdown
D. security auditing capability based upon CERT recommendations
E. multi-layered defense against social engineering
F. single-step deployment of basic and advanced policy settings

Answer: ACF

6. What are three objectives that the no ip inspect command achieves? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. removes the entire CBAC configuration
B. removes all associated static ACLs
C. turns off the automatic audit feature in SDM
D. denies HTTP and Java applets to the inside interface but permits this traffic to the DMZ
E. resets all global timeouts and thresholds to the defaults
F. deletes all existing sessions

Answer: AEF

7. Which three features are benefits of using GRE tunnels in conjunction with IPsec for building site-to-site VPNs? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. allows dynamic routing over the tunnel
B. supports multi-protocol (non-IP) traffic over the tunnel
C. reduces IPsec headers overhead since tunnel mode is used
D. simplifies the ACL used in the crypto map
E. uses Virtual Tunnel Interface (VTI) to simplify the IPsec VPN configuration

Answer: ABD

8. Which three IPsec VPN statements are true? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. IKE keepalives are unidirectional and sent every ten seconds.
B. IKE uses the Diffie-Hellman algorithm to generate symmetrical keys to be used by IPsec peers.
C. IPsec uses the Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP) or the Authentication Header (AH) protocol for exchanging keys.
D. Main mode is the method used for the IKE phase two security association negotiations.
E. Quick mode is the method used for the IKE phase one security association negotiations.
F. To establish IKE SA, main mode utilizes six packets while aggressive mode utilizes only three packets.

Answer: ABF

9. Which three statements are true about Cisco IOS Firewall? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. It can be configured to block Java traffic.
B. It can be configured to detect and prevent SYN-flooding denial-of-service (DoS) network attacks.
C. It can only examine network layer and transport layer information.
D. It can only examine transport layer and application layer information.
E. The inspection rules can be used to set timeout values for specified protocols.
F. The ip inspect cbac-name command must be configured in global configuration mode.

Answer: ABE

10. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the partial configuration, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 response(s).

A. A CBAC inspection rule is configured on router RTA.
B. A named ACL called SDM_LOW is configured on router RTA.
C. A QoS policy has been applied on interfaces Serial 0/0 and FastEthernet 0/1.
D. Interface Fa0/0 should be the inside interface and interface Fa0/1 should be the outside interface.
E. On interface Fa0/0, the ip inspect statement should be incoming.
F. The interface commands ip inspect SDM_LOW in allow CBAC to monitor multiple protocols.

Answer: AF

11. Which two statements describe the functions and operations of IDS and IPS systems? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. A network administrator entering a wrong password would generate a true-negative alarm.
B. A false positive alarm is generated when an IDS/IPS signature is correctly identified.
C. An IDS is significantly more advanced over IPS because of its ability to prevent network attacks.
D. Cisco IDS works inline and stops attacks before they enter the network.
E. Cisco IPS taps the network traffic and responds after an attack.
F. Profile-based intrusion detection is also known as “anomaly detection”.

Answer: BF

12. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the interface S1/0 on router R1?
Select the best response.

A. Labeled packets can be sent over an interface.
B. MPLS Layer 2 negotiations have occurred.
C. IP label switching has been disabled on this interface.
D. None of the MPLS protocols have been configured on the interface.

Answer: D

13. Which two network attack statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. Access attacks can consist of password attacks, trust exploitation, port redirection, and man-in-the-middle attacks.
B. Access attacks can consist of UDP and TCP SYN flooding, ICMP echo-request floods, and ICMP directed broadcasts.
C. DoS attacks can be reduced through the use of access control configuration, encryption, and RFC 2827 filtering.
D. DoS attacks can consist of IP spoofing and DDoS attacks.
E. IP spoofing can be reduced through the use of policy-based routing.
F. IP spoofing exploits known vulnerabilities in authentication services, FTP services, and web services to gain entry to web accounts, confidential databases, and other sensitive information.

Answer: AD

14. What are the four steps, in their correct order, to mitigate a worm attack?
Select the best response.

A. contain, inoculate, quarantine, and treat
B. inoculate, contain, quarantine, and treat
C. quarantine, contain, inoculate, and treat
D. preparation, identification, traceback, and postmortem
E. preparation, classification, reaction, and treat
F. identification, inoculation, postmortem, and reaction

Answer: A

15. If an edge Label Switch Router (LSR) is properly configured, which three combinations are possible? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. A received IP packet is forwarded based on the IP destination address and the packet is sent as an IP packet.
B. An IP destination exists in the IP forwarding table. A received labeled packet is dropped because the label is not found in the LFIB table.
C. There is an MPLS label-switched path toward the destination. A received IP packet is dropped because the destination is not found in the IP forwarding table.
D. A received IP packet is forwarded based on the IP destination address and the packet is sent as a labeled packet.
E. A received labeled IP packet is forwarded based upon both the label and the IP address.
F. A received labeled packet is forwarded based on the label. After the label is swapped, the newly labeled packet is sent.

Answer: ADF

16. Which three techniques should be used to secure management protocols? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. Configure SNMP with only read-only community strings.
B. Encrypt TFTP and syslog traffic in an IPSec tunnel.
C. Implement RFC 3704 filtering at the perimeter router when allowing syslog access from devices on the outside of a firewall.
D. Synchronize the NTP master clock with an Internet atomic clock.
E. Use SNMP version 2.
F. Use TFTP version 3 or above because these versions support a cryptographic authentication mechanism between peers.

Answer: ABC

17. Which statement describes Reverse Route Injection (RRI)?
Select the best response.

A. A static route that points towards the Cisco Easy VPN server is created on the remote client.
B. A static route is created on the Cisco Easy VPN server for the internal IP address of each VPN client.
C. A default route is injected into the route table of the remote client.
D. A default route is injected into the route table of the Cisco Easy VPN server.

Answer: B

18. What are two possible actions an IOS IPS can take if a packet in a session matches a signature? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. reset the connection
B. forward the packet
C. check the packet against an ACL
D. drop the packet

Answer: AD

19. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the Network Time Protocol (NTP) are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. Router RTA will adjust for eastern daylight savings time.
B. To enable authentication, the ntp authenticate command is required on routers RTA and RTB.
C. To enable NTP, the ntp master command must be configured on routers RTA and RTB.
D. Only NTP time requests are allowed from the host with IP address 10.1.1.1.
E. The preferred time source located at 130.207.244.240 will be used for synchronization regardless of the other time sources.

Answer: AB

20. What is a reason for implementing MPLS in a network?
Select the best response.

A. MPLS eliminates the need of an IGP in the core.
B. MPLS reduces the required number of BGP-enabled devices in the core.
C. Reduces routing table lookup since only the MPLS core routers perform routing table lookups.
D. MPLS eliminates the need for fully meshed connections between BGP enabled devices.

Answer: B

21. Refer to the exhibit. The show mpls interfaces detail command has been used to display information about the interfaces on router R1 that have been configured for label switching. Which statement is true about the MPLS edge router R1?
Select the best response.

A. Packets can be labeled and forwarded out interface Fa0/1 because of the MPLS operational status of the interface.
B. Because LSP tunnel labeling has not been enabled on interface Fa0/1, packets cannot be labeled and forwarded out interface Fa0/1.
C. Packets can be labeled and forwarded out interface Fa1/1 because MPLS has been enabled on this interface.
D. Because the MTU size is increased above the size limit, packets cannot be labeled and forwarded out interface Fa1/1.

Answer: A

22. Refer to the exhibit. MPLS has been configured on all routers in the domain. In order for R2 and R3 to forward frames between them with label headers, what additional configuration will be required on devices that are attached to the LAN segment?
Select the best response.

A. Decrease the maximum MTU requirements on all router interfaces that are attached to the LAN segment.
B. Increase the maximum MTU requirements on all router interfaces that are attached to the LAN segment.
C. No additional configuration is required. Interface MTU size will be automatically adjusted to accommodate the larger size frames.
D. No additional configuration is required. Frames with larger MTU size will be automatically fragmented and forwarded on all LAN segments.

Answer: B

23. Which three statements about IOS Firewall configurations are true? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. The IP inspection rule can be applied in the inbound direction on the secured interface.
B. The IP inspection rule can be applied in the outbound direction on the unsecured interface.
C. The ACL applied in the outbound direction on the unsecured interface should be an extended ACL.
D. The ACL applied in the inbound direction on the unsecured interface should be an extended ACL.
E. For temporary openings to be created dynamically by Cisco IOS Firewall, the access-list for the returning traffic must be a standard ACL.
F. For temporary openings to be created dynamically by Cisco IOS Firewall, the IP inspection rule must be applied to the secured interface.

Answer: ABD

24. What are three features of the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. network-based application recognition (NBAR)
B. authentication proxy
C. stateful packet filtering
D. AAA services
E. proxy server
F. IPS

Answer: BCF

25. Which statement describes the Authentication Proxy feature?
Select the best response.

A. All traffic is permitted from the inbound to the outbound interface upon successful authentication of the user.
B. A specific access profile is retrieved from a TACACS+ or RADIUS server and applied to an IOS Firewall based on user provided credentials.
C. Prior to responding to a proxy ARP, the router will prompt the user for a login and password which are authenticated based on the configured AAA policy.
D. The proxy server capabilities of the IOS Firewall are enabled upon successful authentication of the user.

Answer: B

26. Which two statements about an IDS are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. The IDS is in the traffic path.
B. The IDS can send TCP resets to the source device.
C. The IDS can send TCP resets to the destination device.
D. The IDS listens promiscuously to all traffic on the network.
E. Default operation is for the IDS to discard malicious traffic.

Answer: BD

27. Which statement about an IPS is true?
Select the best response.

A. The IPS is in the traffic path.
B. Only one active interface is required.
C. Full benefit of an IPS will not be realized unless deployed in conjunction with an IDS.
D. When malicious traffic is detected, the IPS will only send an alert to a management station.

Answer: A

28. Which three categories of signatures can a Cisco IPS microengine identify? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. DDoS signatures
B. strong signatures
C. exploit signatures
D. numeric signatures
E. spoofing signatures
F. connection signatures

Answer: ACF

29. During the Easy VPN Remote connection process, which phase involves pushing the IP address, Domain Name System (DNS), and split tunnel attributes to the client?
Select the best response.

A. mode configuration
B. the VPN client establishment of an ISAKMP SA
C. IPsec quick mode completion of the connection
D. VPN client initiation of the IKE phase 1 process

Answer: A

30. When configuring the Cisco VPN Client, what action is required prior to installing Mutual Group Authentication?
Select the best response.

A. Transparent tunneling must be enabled.
B. A valid root certificate must be installed.
C. A group pre-shared secret must be properly configured.
D. The option to “Allow Local LAN Access” must be selected.

Answer: B

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1. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect on the trust boundary of configuring the command mls qos trust cos on the switch port that is connected to the IP phone?
Select the best response.

A. Effectively the trust boundary has been moved to the IP phone.
B. The host is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The switch is rewriting packets it receives from the IP phone and determining the CoS value.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will trust the distribution layer switch to set the CoS.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.

Answer: A

2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect when the switchport priority extend cos 3 command is configured on the switch port interface connected to the IP phone?

Select the best response.

A. Effectively, the trust boundary has been moved to the PC attached to the IP phone.
B. The computer is now establishing the CoS value and has effectively become the trust boundary.
C. The IP phone is enabled to override with a CoS value of 3 the existing CoS marking of the PC attached to the IP phone.
D. The switch will no longer tag incoming voice packets and will extend the trust boundary to the distribution layer switch.
E. RTP will be used to negotiate a CoS value based upon bandwidth utilization on the link.

Answer: C

3. Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated.
B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN.
C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP.
D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS).
E. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point.
F. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention.

Answer: ABC

4. Which statement is true about IP telephony calls?
Select the best response.

A. A Voice over IP (VoIP) packet consists of the voice payload, IP header, TCP header, RTP header, and Layer 2 link header.
B. The voice carrier stream uses H.323 to set up, maintain, and tear down call endpoints.
C. Call control signaling uses Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP) packets that contain actual voice samples.
D. The sum of bandwidth necessary for each major application, including voice, video, and data, should not exceed 75 percent of the total available bandwidth for each link.

Answer: D

5. Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic.
B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default.
C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4.
D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port.
E. PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured.
F. The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0.

Answer: BDF

6. In what three ways is QoS applied in the campus network? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. No traffic marking occurs at the core layer. Layer 2/3 QoS tags are trusted from distribution layer switches and used to prioritize and queue the traffic as it traverses the core.
B. IP precedence, DSCP, QoS group, IP address, and ingress interface are Layer 2 characteristics that are set by the access layer as it passes traffic to the distribution layer. The distribution layer, once it has made a switching decision to the core layer, strips these off.
C. MAC address, Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS), the ATM cell loss priority (CLP) bit, the Frame Relay discard eligible (DE) bit, and ingress interface are established by the voice submodule (distribution layer) as traffic passes to the core layer.
D. The distribution layer inspects a frame to see if it has exceeded a predefined rate of traffic within a certain time frame, which is typically a fixed number internal to the switch. If a frame is determined to be in excess of the predefined rate limit, the CoS value can be marked up in a way that results in the packet being dropped.
E. The access layer is the initial point at which traffic enters the network. Traffic is marked (or remarked) at Layers 2 and 3 by the access switch as it enters the network, or is “trusted” that it is entering the network with the appropriate tag.
F. Traffic inbound from the access layer to the distribution layer can be trusted or reset depending upon the ability of the access layer switches. Priority access into the core is provided based on Layer 3 QoS tags.

Answer: AEF

7. Which two Aironet enterprise solution statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. A Cisco Aironet AP handles the transmission of beacon frames and also handles responses to probe-request frames from clients.
B. A Cisco Aironet solution includes intelligent Cisco Aironet access points (APs) and Cisco Catalyst switches.
C. In the Cisco Aironet solution, each AP is locally configured by the use of either a web interface or the command line interface.
D. The Cisco Aironet AP handles real-time portions of the LWAPP protocol, and the WLAN controller handles those items which are not time sensitive.
E. Virtual MAC architecture allows the splitting of the 802.11 protocol between the Cisco Aironet AP and a LAN switch.

Answer: AD

8. Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) is true?
Select the best response.

A. LWAPP encrypts control traffic between the AP and the controller.
B. LWAPP encrypts user traffic with a x.509 certificate using AES-CCMP.
C. LWAPP encrypts both control traffic and user data.
D. When set to Layer 3, LWAPP uses a proprietary protocol to communicate with the Cisco Aironet APs.

Answer: A

9. Which issue or set of issues does the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) address?
Select the best response.

A. reduction of processing in wireless controllers
B. distributed approach to authentication, encryption, and policy enforcement
C. provides security by blocking communication between access points and wireless clients
D. access point discovery, information exchange, and configuration

Answer: D

10. Refer to the exhibit. The command spanning-tree guard root is configured on interface Gi0/0 on both switch S2 and S5. The global configuration command spanning-tree uplinkfast has been configured on both switch S2 and S5. The link between switch S4 and S5 fails. Will Host A be able to reach Host B?
Select the best response.

A. Yes. Traffic can pass either from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1, or, from switch S6 to S5 to S2 to S1.
B. No. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end at interface Gi 0/0.
C. No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switch S5 and S2.
D. Yes. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1.
E. No. Traffic will either pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end, or traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 and dead-end.

Answer: D

11. Refer to the exhibit. The service provider wants to ensure that switch S1 is the root switch for its own network. On which interfaces should root guard be configured to ensure that this happens?
Select the best response.

A. interfaces 1 and 2
B. interfaces 1, 2, 3, and 4
C. interfaces 1, 3, 5, and 6
D. interfaces 5 and 6
E. interfaces 5, 6, 7, and 8
F. interfaces 11 and 12

Answer: D

12. Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable data encryption.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
E. When the user selects a different profile in the Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU), the settings for the wireless client adapter are changed only after a reboot.

Answer: AC

13. Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Client Adapter has been installed and configured through the ADU on the PC. The Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) has been enabled during the installation and the icon appears in the system tray area in the lower right of the desktop. What is the significance of the icon?
Select the best response.

A. It indicates that the radio of the client adapter is disabled.
B. It indicates that the client adapter is not associated to an access point or another client.
C. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, but the user is not EAP authenticated.
D. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is excellent or good.
E. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is fair.
F. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is poor.

Answer: F

14. In each option, a Layer 2 security attack is specified. Which statement correctly matches the correct mitigation technique with the specified Layer 2 switch attack?
Select the best response.

A. Configure DHCP spoofing to mitigate ARP address spoofing attacks.
B. Configure DHCP spoofing to mitigate DHCP spoofing attacks.
C. Configure PVLANs to mitigate MAC address flooding attacks.
D. Configure port security to mitigate MAC address flooding attacks.
E. Enable root guard to mitigate ARP address spoofing attacks.
F. Configure dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) to mitigate IP address spoofing on DHCP untrusted ports.

Answer: D

15. Which description correctly describes a MAC address flooding attack?
Select the best response.

A. The attacking device crafts ARP replies intended for valid hosts. The MAC address of the attacking device then becomes the destination address found in the Layer 2 frames sent by the valid network device.
B. The attacking device crafts ARP replies intended for valid hosts. The MAC address of the attacking device then becomes the source address found in the Layer 2 frames sent by the valid network device.
C. The attacking device spoofs a destination MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
D. The attacking device spoofs a source MAC address of a valid host currently in the CAM table. The switch then forwards frames destined for the valid host to the attacking device.
E. Frames with unique, invalid destination MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.
F. Frames with unique, invalid source MAC addresses flood the switch and exhaust CAM table space. The result is that new entries cannot be inserted because of the exhausted CAM table space, and traffic is subsequently flooded out all ports.

Answer: F

16. Refer to the exhibit. An attacker is connected to interface Fa0/11 on switch A-SW2 and attempts to establish a DHCP server for a man-in-middle attack. Which recommendation, if followed, would mitigate this type of attack?
Select the best response.

A. All switch ports in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP trusted ports.
B. All switch ports in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
C. All switch ports connecting to hosts in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP trusted ports.
D. All switch ports connecting to hosts in the Building Access block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
E. All switch ports in the Server Farm block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.
F. All switch ports connecting to servers in the Server Farm block should be configured as DHCP untrusted ports.

Answer: D

17. Refer to the exhibit. The web servers WS_1 and WS_2 need to be accessed by external and internal users. For security reasons, the servers should not communicate with each other, although they are located on the same subnet. The servers do need, however, to communicate with a database server located in the inside network. What configuration will isolate the servers from each other?
Select the best response.

A. The switch ports 3/1 and 3/2 will be defined as secondary VLAN isolated ports. The ports connecting to the two firewalls will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
B. The switch ports 3/1 and 3/2 will be defined as secondary VLAN community ports. The ports connecting to the two firewalls will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
C. The switch ports 3/1 and 3/2 and the ports connecting to the two firewalls will be defined as primary VLAN promiscuous ports.
D. The switch ports 3/1 and 3/2 and the ports connecting to the two firewalls will be defined as primary VLAN community ports.

Answer: A

18. What are three required steps to configure DHCP snooping on a switch? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).

A. Configure DHCP snooping globally.
B. Configure DHCP snooping on an interface.
C. Configure DHCP snooping on a VLAN or range of VLANs.
D. Configure the switch as a DHCP server.
E. Configure all interfaces as DHCP snooping trusted interfaces.
F. Configure the switch to insert and remove DHCP relay information (option-82 field) in forwarded DHCP request messages.

Answer: ABC

19. A client is searching for an access point (AP). What is the correct process order that the client and access point go through to create a connection?
Select the best response.

A. probe request/response, authentication request/response, association request/response
B. association request/response, authentication request/response, probe request/response
C. probe request/response, association request/response, authentication request/response
D. association request/response, probe request/response, authentication request/response

Answer: A

20. Which statement about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) protocol is true?
Select the best response.

A. The processing of 802.11 data and management protocols and access point capabilities is distributed between a lightweight access point and a centralized WLAN controller.
B. LWAPP aggregates radio management forward information and sends it to a wireless LAN solution engine.
C. LWAPP authenticates all access points in the subnet and establishes a secure communication channel with each of them.
D. LWAPP advertises its WDS capability and participates in electing the best WDS device for the wireless LAN.

Answer: A

21. Which statement describes the function of a trust boundary?
Select the best response.

A. Trust boundaries determine whether certain types of traffic can pass.
B. Trust boundaries are a point in the network where decisions about CoS markings on incoming packets are made.
C. Trust boundaries are a point in the network where QoS functionality begins and ends.
D. Trust boundaries are points in the network where Layer 2 CoS markings are converted to Layer 3 DSCP or IP precedence markings.

Answer: B

22. Which statement is true about utilizing a data network for voice traffic?
Select the best response.

A. Adding bandwidth to the data network is the primary solution to provide for the needs of voice traffic.
B. Because voice traffic volume cannot be calculated, network bandwidth requirements must be determined from an existing installation.
C. Voice traffic will require some form of QoS mechanisms in most networks.
D. Voice traffic will require some form of QoS implementation only in congested networks.
E. Network congestion must be totally eliminated to provide proper voice traffic performance.

Answer: C

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch interface configuration command would automatically configure quality of service (QoS) for voice over IP (VoIP) within a QoS domain?
Select the best response.

A. auto qos voip cisco-phone
B. mls qos trust
C. switchport priority extend cos 7
D. switchport priority extend trust

Answer: A

24. Refer to the exhibit. Which Catalyst switch interface command would be used to cause the switch to instruct the phone to override the incoming CoS from the PC before forwarding the packet to the switch?
Select the best response.

A. switchport priority extend trust
B. switchport priority extend cos 2
C. switchport priority extend cos 11
D. mls qos cos 2
E. mls qos cos 2 override

Answer: B

25. Refer to the exhibit. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is enabled on switch SW_A only. Both Host_A and Host_B acquire their IP addresses from the DHCP server connected to switch SW_A. What would the outcome be if Host_B initiated an ARP spoof attack toward Host_A ?
Select the best response.

A. The spoof packets will be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be permitted.
B. The spoof packets will be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be dropped.
C. The spoof packets will not be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be permitted.
D. The spoof packets will not be inspected at the ingress port of switch SW_A and will be dropped.

Answer: C

26. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Adapter CB21AG is inserted into a PC cardbus slot. Both the green status LED and the amber activity LED are blinking slowly. What is the condition of the adapter?
Select the best response.

A. The adapter is not receiving power.
B. The adapter is in power save mode.
C. The adapter is scanning for the wireless network for which it is configured.
D. The adapter is associated to an access point or another client.
E. The adapter is transmitting or receiving data while associated to an access point or another client.

Answer: D

27. Refer to the exhibit. The signal transmitted from the AP is reflected off a wall resulting in multipath interference at the client end. Which statement is true?
Select the best response.

A. If signal 1 is in phase with signal 2, the result is essentially zero signal or a dead spot in the WLAN.
B. If signal 2 is close to 360 degrees out of phase with signal 1, the result is essentially zero signal or a dead spot in the WLAN.
C. Multipath interference is solved by using dual antennas.
D. Multipath interference is less of an issue when using a DSSS technology because multipath is frequency selective.
E. The transmitted signal from the AP arrives at the client at slightly different times resulting in phase shifting.

Answer: E

28. Refer to the exhibit. Which two Lightweight Access Point statements are true? (Choose two.)

Select 2 response(s).

A. An AP that has been upgraded from an autonomous AP to lightweight AP will only function in conjunction with a Cisco Wireless LAN controller.
B. Autonomous APs receive control and configuration information from a WLAN controller.
C. LWAPP increases the amount of processing within the APs, enabling them to support filtering and policy enforcement features.
D. Real time events such as authentication, security management, and mobility are handled by the lightweight AP.
E. Lightweight APs require local configurations using local management.
F. WLAN controllers provide a single point of management.

Answer: AF

29. Which two WLAN client utility statements are true? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).

A. In a Windows XP environment, a client adapter can only be configured and managed with the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to enable or disable the adapter radio and to configure LEAP authentication with dynamic WEP.
C. The Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can both be enabled at the same time to setup WLAN client cards.
D. The Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be configured to display the Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) icon in the Windows system tray.

Answer: BD

30. What does the global configuration command ip arp inspection vlan 10-12,15 accomplish?
Select the best response.

A. validates outgoing ARP requests for interfaces configured on VLAN 10, 11, 12, or 15
B. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports
C. intercepts, logs, and discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings
D. discards ARP packets with invalid IP-to-MAC address bindings on trusted ports

Answer: C

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Exam Number/Code: 642-813
Exam Name: implementing cisco switched networks
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