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642-902 Exam Intro:
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Number of Questions: 50-60 questions in 90 minutes

For professionals who are looking for advanced credentials in Cisco such as CCNP and CCDP, this is an obligatory exam. Cisco makes sure that only those eligible for CCNP and CCDP pass the exam. Not just practical experience but understanding the theory and concepts is equally important. Since CCNP and CCDP do not test that, it is left to BCMSN to test the candidates’ concepts.

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For professionals who are looking for advanced credentials in Cisco such as CCNP and CCDP, this is an obligatory exam. Cisco makes sure that only those eligible for CCNP and CCDP pass the exam. Not just practical experience but understanding the theory and concepts is equally important. Since CCNP and CCDP do not test that, it is left to BCMSN to test the candidates’ concepts.

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Cisco Certified Internetwork Professional (CCIP)
Cisco Certified Design Professional (CCDP)
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For professionals who are looking for advanced credentials in Cisco such as CCNP and CCDP, this is an obligatory exam. Cisco makes sure that only those eligible for CCNP and CCDP pass the exam. Not just practical experience but understanding the theory and concepts is equally important. Since CCNP and CCDP do not test that, it is left to BCMSN to test the candidates’ concepts.

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Cisco Certified Network Professional (CCNP)
Cisco Certified Internetwork Professional (CCIP)
Cisco Certified Design Professional (CCDP)
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Exam Number/Code: 642-832
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The CCNP is the intermediate, professional-level certification in Cisco’s Network Installation and Support track (aka Routing and Switching). As with Cisco’s other professional-level certs, the CCNP certifies its holders in “journeyman” or “advanced” networking knowledge. CCNPs can install, configure, operate and troubleshoot LAN, WAN and remote-access services for organizations with up to 500 network nodes. It also requires strong working knowledge of an impressive laundry list of networking protocols, technologies and services, including IP, EIGRP, extended access lists, route redistribution, RIP, route summarization, OSPF, VLSM, BGP, serial protocols, frame relay, HDLC, DDR, PSTN, PPP, VLANs, Ethernet, access lists, 802.10, and transparent and translational bridging.

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testking 642-825 Implementing Secure Converged Wide Area Networks (ISCW)
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Exam 642-845: Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks (ONT)

Related Certifications: CCNP

Duration: 90 minutes

Cost: $150, Available at Pearson VUE Testing Centers

Exam Topics Include:

1. Describe Cisco VoIP implementations.

2. Describe QoS considerations and strategies.

3. Describe DiffServ QoS implementations.

4. Implement Cisco Auto QoS.

5. Implement Cisco device hardening using Cisco security features

6. Describe and Implement WLAN security and management.

The Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks exam, 642-845, is a qualifying exam for the Cisco Certified Network Professional CCNP. This is one of four tests that are required in order to become CCNP certified. The ONT 642-845 exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills in optimizing and providing effective QOS techniques for unified networks. The exam topics include implementing a VOIP network, implementing QoS including AutoQoS, wireless security, and basic wireless management.

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1. Which three characteristics of the traffic flow are taken into consideration when the QoS-for-VPNs feature
(QoS pre-classify) provides packet classification and applies appropriate QoS service on tunnel interfaces?
(Choose three.)
A. IP precedence bits
B. DSCP bits
C. original port numbers
D. DE bits
E. source IP address
F. destination IP address
Answer: CEF
2. Which two QoS statements are true about the use of the SDM QoS wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Business-critical traffic includes VoIP and voice signaling packets.
B. SDM can be used to configure a basic QoS policy for incoming traffic on WAN interfaces and IPsec tunnels.
C. SDM can provide QoS for real-time traffic and business-critical traffic.
D. SDM creates a custom-queuing (CQ) or a priority-queuing (PQ) policy.
E. SDM creates a low latency queuing (LLQ) service policy with its associated classes.
F. When allocating bandwidth, values can be entered in either bandwidth percentage or kilobytes per second
(kBps).
Answer: CE

3. Which two statements about Cisco AutoQoS are true? (Choose two.)
A. A QoS service policy must already be enabled on the interface before Cisco AutoQoS can be enabled.
B. Any interface at or below 1.54 Mbps is classified as a low-speed interface.
C. AutoQoS uses Cisco network-based application recognition (NBAR) to identify various applications and
traffic types.
D. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) must be enabled at the interface or ATM PVC.
E. Cisco NBAR is a prerequisite for CEF.
F. On a serial interface, before AutoQoS is enabled, the clock rate command must be used to specify a bandwidth
other than the default 1.54 Mbps.
Answer: CD
4. When a router converts analog signals to digital signals as part of the VoIP process, it performs four steps.
Which set of steps contains the steps in their correct sequence?
A. encoding
optional compression
quantization
sampling
B. encoding
quantization
optional compression
sampling
C. optional compression
encoding
sampling
quantization
D. optional compression
sampling
encoding
quantization
E. sampling
quantization
encoding
optional compression
F. sampling
quantization
optional compression
encoding
Answer: E

5. What are three valid Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) types? (Choose three.)
A. LEAP
B. EAP-FAST
C. EAP-TLS
D. EAP-AES
E. WEAP
F. WEP
Answer: ABC

6. What are three benefits of the Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE)? (Choose three.)
A. The decentralized nature of WLSE helps reduce the time and resources that are required to manage a large
number of WLAN devices.
B. WLSE helps simplify large-scale deployments by providing automatic configuration of new APs.
C. WLSE minimizes security vulnerabilities by providing security policy misconfiguration alerts and rogue AP
detection.
D. WLSE provides AP utilization and client association reports, features which help with capacity planning.
E. WLSE can respond to required changes that are requested by APs.
F. WLSE increases productivity through customization with three possible levels of management: lightweight,
extended, and advanced.
Answer: BCD

7. What is link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI)?
A. LFI is a QoS mechanism that allots bandwidth and enables the differentiation of traffic according to a policy.
B. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a
dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
C. LFI is a Layer 3 technique in which header information is sent only at the beginning of the session, stored in a
dictionary, and then referenced in later packets by a short dictionary index.
D. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which large frames are broken into small, equal-sized fragments, and
transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
E. LFI is a Layer 2 technique in which smaller fragments are combined into large, equal-sized frames, and
transmitted over the link in an interleaved fashion.
Answer: D

8. Which two statements about packet marking at the data link layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. Through the use of DE markings, Frame Relay QoS supports up to 10 classes of service.
B. Frames maintain their class of service (CoS) markings when transiting a non-802.1p link.
C. IEEE 802.1p supports up to 10 class of service (CoS) markings.
D. In an 802.1q frame, the 3-bit 802.1p priority field is used to identify the class of service (CoS) priority.
E. The 802.1p CoS markings are preserved through the LAN, but are not maintained end to end.
Answer: DE

9. Which two Cisco AutoQoS interface statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. AutoQoS is supported on Frame Relay multipoint subinterfaces.
B. AutoQoS is supported on low-speed ATM PVCs in point-to-point subinterfaces.
C. AutoQoS is supported on serial PPP and HDLC interfaces.
D. AutoQoS is supported only on Frame Relay main interfaces and not on any subinterface configuration.
Answer: BC

10. Which two wireless security statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. A TACACS+ server is required to implement 802.1x.
B. MIC protects against man-in-the-middle and replay attacks.
C. The 802.1x standard provides encryption services for wireless clients.
D. The AES (symmetric block cipher) is specified in the IEEE 802.11i specification.
E. The IEEE 802.11i specification uses RC4 as its encryption mechanism.
F. WPA requires TKIP and AES as encryption methods.
Answer: BD
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QUESTION 1
Chinatag uses EIGRP as the primary routing protocol in their network. How does
EIGRP advertise subnet masks for each destination network?
A. EIGRP advertises a fixed length subnet mask for each destination network.
B. EIGRP advertises only a classful subnet mask for each destination network.
C. EIGRP, like IGRP and RIP, does not advertise a subnet mask for each destination
network.
D. EIGRP advertises a prefix length for each destination network.
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is a Cisco-proprietary routing
protocol based on IGRP. Unlike IGRP, which is a classful routing protocol, EIGRP supports
CIDR, allowing network designers to maximize address space by using CIDR and VLSM.
Compared to IGRP, EIGRP boasts faster convergence times, improved scalability, and
superior handling of routing loops.
The prefix length field signifies the subnet mask to be associated with the network
number specified in the destination field. Thus, if an EIGRP router is configured as
follows:
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1. ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0
it will advertise 172.16.1.0 with a prefix length of 24.
Likewise, if the router is configured as follows:
1. ip address 172.16.250.1 255.255.255.252
it will advertise 172.16.250.0 with a prefix length of 30.
QUESTION 2
The Chinatag network uses EIGRP. Identify three characteristics of EIGRP feasible
successors? (Select three)
A. Traffic will be load balanced between feasible successors with the same advertised
distance.
B. If the advertised distance of the non-successor route is less than the feasible distance of
best route, then that route is identified as a feasible successor.
C. If the successor becomes unavailable, then the feasible successor can be used immediately
without recalculating for a lost route.
D. The feasible successor can be found in the routing table.
E. A feasible successor is selected by comparing the advertised distance of a
non-successor route to the feasible distance of the best route.
Answer: B, C, E
Explanation:
Once a neighbor relationship has been formed, called an Adjacency, the routers exchange
routing update information and each router builds its own topology table. The Updates contain
all the routes known by the sender. For each route, the receiving router calculates a distance for
that route based on the distance that is conveyed and the cost to that neighbor that advertised
the particular route. If the receiving router sees several routes to a particular network with
different metrics, then the route with the lowest metric becomes the Feasible Distance (FD) to
that network. The Feasible Distance is the metric of a network advertised by the connected
neighbor plus the cost of reaching that neighbor. This path with the best metric is entered into
the routing table because this is the quickest way to get to that network.
With the other possible routes to a particular network with larger metrics, the receiving router
also receives the Reported Distance (RD) to this network via other routers. The Reported
Distance being the total metric along a path to a destination network as advertised by an
upstream neighbor. The Reported Distance for a particular route is compared with the Feasible
Distance that it already has for that route. If the Reported Distance is larger than the Feasible
Distance then this route is not entered into the Topology Table as a Feasible Successor. This
prevents loops from occurring. If the Reported Distance is smaller than the Feasible Distance,
then this path is considered to be a Feasible Successor and is entered into the Topology table.
The Successor for a particular route is the neighbor/peer with the lowest metric/distance to that
network.
If the receiving router has a Feasible Distance to a particular network and it receives an update
from a neighbor with a lower advertised distance (Reported Distance) to that network, then
there is a Feasibility Condition. In this instance, the neighbor becomes a Feasible Successor for
that route because it is one hop closer to the destination network. There may be a number of
Feasible Successors in a meshed network environment, up to 6 of them are entered into the
Topology table thereby giving a number of next hop choices for the local router should the
neighbor with the lowest metric fail. What you should note here, is that the metric for a
neighbor to reach a particular network (i.e. the Reported Distance) must always be less than the
metric (Feasible Distance) for the local router to reach that same network. This way routing
loops are avoided. This is why routes that have Reported Distances larger than the Feasible
Distance are not entered into the Topology table, so that they can never be considered as
successors, since the route is likely to loop back through that local router.
Incorrect Answers:
D: The feasible successors are found in the topology table, but not the active routing table.
E: With EIGRP, traffic is load balanced across equal cost links in the routing table, but not
between feasible successors.
Reference: http://www.rhyshaden.com/eigrp.htm
QUESTION 3
Two Chinatag EIGRP routers are attempting to establish themselves as neighbors.
Which EIGRP multicast packet type is responsible for neighbor discovery?
A. Update
B. Query
C. Acknowledgment
D. Reply
E. Hello
F. None of the above
Answer: E
Explanation:
Remember that simple distance vector routers do not establish any relationship with their
neighbors. RIP and IGRP routers merely broadcast or multicast updates on configured
interfaces. In contrast, EIGRP routers actively establish relationships with their neighbors,
much the same way that OSPF routers do.
EIGRP routers establish adjacencies with neighbor routers by using small hello packets. Hellos
are sent by default every five seconds. An EIGRP router assumes that as long as it is receiving
hello packets from known neighbors, those neighbors (and their routes) remain viable. By
forming adjacencies, EIGRP routers do the following:
1. Dynamically learn of new routes that join their network
2. Identify routers that become either unreachable or inoperable
3. Rediscover routers that had previously been unreachable
QUESTION 4
Chinatag has chosen to use EIGRP for their network routing protocol. Which three
statements are true regarding EIGRP? (Select three)
A. By default, EIGRP uses the Dijkstra algorithm to determine the best path to a
destination network based on bandwidth and delay.
B. To speed convergence, EIGRP attempts to maintain a successor and feasible successor path
for each destination.
C. EIGRP uses hellos to establish neighbor relationships.
D. By default, EIGRP performs auto-summarization across classful network boundaries.
E. EIGRP uses an area hierarchy to increase network scalability.
Answer: B, C, D
Explanation:
EIGRP routers establish adjacencies with neighbor routers by using small hello packets. Hellos
are sent by default every five seconds. An EIGRP router assumes that as long as it is receiving
hello packets from known neighbors, those neighbors (and their routes) remain viable. By
forming adjacencies, EIGRP routers do the following:
1. Dynamically learn of new routes that join their network
2. Identify routers that become either unreachable or inoperable
3. Rediscover routers that had previously been unreachable
EIGRP routers keep route and topology information readily available in RAM so they can react
quickly to changes. Like OSPF, EIGRP keeps this information in several tables, or databases.
* Successor – A successor is a route selected as the primary route to use to reach a
destination. Successors are the entries kept in the routing table. Multiple successors for a
destination can be retained in the routing table.
* Feasible successor – A feasible successor is a backup route. These routes are selected at the
same time the successors are identified, but are kept in the topology table. Multiple feasible
successors for a destination can be retained in the topology table.
EIGRP automatically summarizes routes at the classful boundary, the boundary where the
network address ends as defined by class-based addressing. In most cases, auto summarization
is a good thing, keeping the routing tables as compact as possible
In the presence of discontiguous subnetworks, automatic summarization must be disabled for
routing to work properly. To turn off auto-summarization, use the following command:
Router(config-router)#no auto-summary
QUESTION 5
You need to configure EIGRP on all routers within the Chinatag network. Which two
statements are characteristics of the routing protocol EIGRP? (Select two)
A. Updates are sent as broadcast.
B. Updates are sent as multicast.
C. LSAs are sent to adjacent neighbors.
D. Metric values are represented in a 32-bit format for granularity.
Answer: B, D
Explanation:
EIGRP routers establish adjacencies with neighbor routers by using small hello packets. Hellos
are sent by default every five seconds. An EIGRP router assumes that as long as it is receiving
hello packets from known neighbors, those neighbors (and their routes) remain viable. By
forming adjacencies, EIGRP routers do the following:
1. Dynamically learn of new routes that join their network
2. Identify routers that become either unreachable or inoperable
You have been tasked with setting up summarization in the Chinatag EIGRP
network. Which two statements are true about EIGRP manual summarization?
(Select two)
A. Manual summarization is configured on a per interface basis.
B. When manual summarization is configured, auto-summarization is automatically
disabled by default.
C. The summary address is assigned an administrative distance of 10 by default.
D. Manual summaries can be configured with the classful mask only.
E. The summary address is entered into the routing table and is shown to be sourced from the
Null0 interface.
Answer: A, E
Explanation:
EIGRP automatically summarizes routes at the classful boundary, the boundary where the
network address ends as defined by class-based addressing. In most cases, auto summarization
is a good thing, keeping the routing tables as compact as possible
In the presence of discontiguous subnetworks, automatic summarization must be disabled for
routing to work properly. To turn off auto-summarization, use the following command:
Router(config-router)#no auto-summary
EIGRP also enables manual configuration of a prefix to use as a summary address. Manual
summary routes are configured on a per-interface basis. The interface that will propagate the
route summary must first be selected and then defined with the ip summary-address eigrp
command, which has the following syntax: Router(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp
autonomous-system-number
ip-address mask administrative-distance
D 2.1.0.0/16 is a summary, 00:00:22, Null0
Notice that the summary route is sourced from Null0, and not an actual interface.
QUESTION 7
Router CK1 4 is configured as an EIGRP stub router. What are three key concepts that
apply when configuring the EIGRP stub routing feature in a hub and spoke network?
(Select three)
A. Stub routers are not queried for routes.
B. A hub router prevents routes from being advertised to the remote router.
C. A stub router should have only EIGRP hub routers as neighbors.
D. EIGRP stub routing should be used on hub routers only.
E. Spoke routers connected to hub routers answer the route queries for the stub router.
F. Only remote routers are configured as stubs.
Answer: A, C, F
Explanation:
The Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) Stub Routing feature
improves network stability, reduces resource utilization, and simplifies stub router
configuration.
Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke
network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote router (the spoke) that is
connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to
one or more distribution routers. The only route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is
through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies
where the distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be
connected to many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be connected to 100
or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all
nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes unnecessary for the remote router to hold
a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a
default route to the remote router.
When using the EIGRP Stub Routing feature, you need to configure the distribution and
remote routers to use EIGRP, and to configure only the remote router as a stub. Only specified
routes are propagated from the remote (stub) router. The router responds to queries for
summaries, connected routes, redistributed static routes, external routes, and internal routes
with the message “inaccessible.” A router that is configured as a stub will send a special peer
information packet to all neighboring routers to report its status as a stub router.
More on:

http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/software/ios120/120newft/120limit/120s/120s15/eigrpstb.

QUESTION 8
You want to reduce the amount of EIGRP traffic across low speed links in the
Chinatag network. Which is the most effective technique to contain EIGRP queries?
A. Using a hierarchical addressing scheme
B. Configuring route filters
C. Establishing separate autonomous systems
D. Route summarization
E. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
EIGRP automatically summarizes routes at the classful boundary, the boundary where the
network address ends as defined by class-based addressing. In most cases, auto summarization
is a good thing, keeping the routing tables as compact as possible
In the presence of discontiguous subnetworks, automatic summarization must be disabled for
routing to work properly. To turn off auto-summarization, use the following command:
Router(config-router)#no auto-summary
EIGRP also enables manual configuration of a prefix to use as a summary address. Manual
summary routes are configured on a per-interface basis. The interface that will propagate the
route summary must first be selected and then defined with the ip summary-address eigrp
command, which has the following syntax: Router(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp
autonomous-system-number
ip-address mask administrative-distance
QUESTION 9
Routers CK1 and CK2 have formed an EIGRP neighbor relationship. In order for two
routers to become EIGRP neighbors, which two values must match? (Select two)
A. K values
B. Delay
C. Autonomous system
D. Hello time
E. Hold time F.
Bandwidth
Answer: A, C
Explanation:
Despite being compatible with IGRP, EIGRP uses a different metric calculation and hop-count
limitation. EIGRP scales the IGRP metric by a factor of 256. That is because EIGRP uses a metric
that is 32-bits long, and IGRP uses a 24-bit metric. By multiplying or dividing by 256, EIGRP can
easily exchange information with IGRP.
EIGRP also imposes a maximum hop limit of 224, which is slightly less than the 255 limit for IGRP
However, this is more than enough to support most of the largest internetworks. To
QUESTION 10
Chinatag uses EIGRP as their internal routing protocol. Which three statements are true
about EIGRP operation? (Select three)
A. The maximum metric for the specific routes is used as the metric for the summary
route.
B. When summarization is configured, the router will also create a route to null 0.
C. The summary route remains in the route table, even if there are no more specific
routes to the network.
D. Automatic summarization across major network boundaries is enabled by default.
E. Summarization is configured on a per-interface level.
Answer: B, D, E
Explanation:
EIGRP automatically summarizes routes at the classful boundary, the boundary where the
network address ends as defined by class-based addressing. In most cases, auto summarization
is a good thing, keeping the routing tables as compact as possible
In the presence of discontiguous subnetworks, automatic summarization must be disabled for
routing to work properly. To turn off auto-summarization, use the following command:
Router(config-router)#no auto-summary
EIGRP also enables manual configuration of a prefix to use as a summary address. Manual
summary routes are configured on a per-interface basis. The interface that will propagate the
summary routes are configured on a per-interface basis. The interface that will propagate the
route summary must first be selected and then defined with the ip summary-address eigrp
command, which has the following syntax: Router(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp
autonomous-system-number
ip-address mask administrative-distance

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1. Which switch command enables a trunking protocol that appends a four byte CRC to the packet?
A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation itef
C. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi
D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation isl
Answer: D

2. What action should a network administrator take to enable VTP pruning on an entire management domain?
A. enable VTP pruning on any client switch in the domain
B. enable VTP pruning on every switch in the domain
C. enable VTP pruning on any switch in the management domain
D. enable VTP pruning on a VTP server in the management domain
Answer: D
3. Which statement describes Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) mode ‘desirable’?
A. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode and negotiates to convert the link into a trunk link.
B. The interface actively attempts to convert the link to a trunk link.
C. The interface is put into permanent trunking mode but prevented from generating DTP frames.
D. The interface is put into a passive mode, waiting to convert the link to a trunk link.
Answer: B

4. Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
A. the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
B. the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
C. the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address
D. the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0×01-00-0c-00-00
E. protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
F. protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity
Answer: BCE

5. In a customer’s network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1. VLANs
1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is being passed on
VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are operational. Right before
the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three configuration issues

on TEST1 could be causing the network outage? (Choose three.)
A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name.
B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP.
C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1.
D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision.
F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1.
Answer: CEF

6. Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port to actively send and respond to DTP negotiation
frames?
A. access
B. trunk
C. no negotiate
D. dynamic desirable
E. dynamic auto
Answer: D

7. Which method of Layer 3 switching uses a forwarding information base (FIB)?
A. route caching
B. flow-based switching
C. demand-based switching
D. topology-based switching
Answer: D

8. Which protocol specified by RFC 2281 provides network redundancy for IP networks, ensuring that user traffic
immediately and transparently recovers from first-hop failures in network edge devices or access circuits?
A. STP
B. IRDP
C. ICMP
D. HSRP
Answer: D
9. In which three HSRP states do routers send hello messages? (Choose three.)
A. standby
B. learn
C. listen
D. speak
E. active
Answer: ADE

10. Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of a router
as the gateway address?
A. Proxy ARP
B. HSRP
C. IRDP
D. VRRP
E. GLBP
Answer: D

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Implementing Secure Converged Wide Area Networks (ISCW)

Question No: 2 Which three techniques should be used to secure management protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Configure SNMP with only read-only community strings.
B. Encrypt TFTP and syslog traffic in an IPSec tunnel.
C. Implement RFC 3704 filtering at the perimeter router when allowing syslog access from devices on the
outside of a firewall.
D. Synchronize the NTP master clock with an Internet atomic clock.
E. Use SNMP version 2.
F. Use TFTP version 3 or above because these versions support a cryptographic authentication mechanism
between peers.
Answer: A, B, C
Question No: 3 What are two steps that must be taken when mitigating a worm attack? (Choose two.)
A. Inoculate systems by applying update patches.
B. Limit traffic rate.
C. Apply authentication.
D. Quarantine infected machines.
E. Enable anti-spoof measures
Answer: A, D
Question No: 4 What is a reason for implementing MPLS in a network?
A. MPLS eliminates the need of an IGP in the core.
B. MPLS reduces the required number of BGP-enabled devices in the core.
C. Reduces routing table lookup since only the MPLS core routers perform routing table lookups.
D. MPLS eliminates the need for fully meshed connections between BGP enabled devices.
Answer: B

Question No: 5 Which three statements about IOS Firewall configurations are true? (Choose three.)

A. The IP inspection rule can be applied in the inbound direction on the secured interface.
B. The IP inspection rule can be applied in the outbound direction on the unsecured interface.
C. The ACL applied in the outbound direction on the unsecured interface should be an extended ACL.
D. The ACL applied in the inbound direction on the unsecured interface should be an extended ACL.
E. For temporary openings to be created dynamically by Cisco IOS Firewall, the access-list for the returning
traffic must be a standard ACL.
F. For temporary openings to be created dynamically by Cisco IOS Firewall, the IP inspection rule must be
applied to the secured interface.
Answer: A, B, D
Question No: 6 Which three IPsec VPN statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. IKE keepalives are unidirectional and sent every ten seconds.
B. IKE uses the Diffie-Hellman algorithm to generate symmetrical keys to be used by IPsec peers.
C. IPsec uses the Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP) or the Authentication Header (AH) protocol for
exchanging keys.
D. Main mode is the method used for the IKE phase two security association negotiations.
E. Quick mode is the method used for the IKE phase one security association negotiations.
F. To establish IKE SA, main mode utilizes six packets while aggressive mode utilizes only three packets.
Answer: A, B, F
Question No: 7 Which three MPLS statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) must be enabled as a prerequisite to running MPLS on a Cisco router.
B. Frame-mode MPLS inserts a 32-bit label between the Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers.
C. MPLS is designed for use with frame-based Layer 2 encapsulation protocols such as Frame Relay, but is not
supported by ATM because of ATM fixed-length cells.
D. OSPF, EIGRP, IS-IS, RIP, and BGP can be used in the control plane.
E. The control plane is responsible for forwarding packets.
F. The two major components of MPLS include the control plane and the data plane.
Answer: A, D, F

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